What is the Correct Way to Take the Inverse Laplace Transform?

ralqs
Messages
97
Reaction score
1
According to the Wikipedia page, the inverse Laplace transform is
f(x) = \frac{1}{2 \pi i} \lim_{y\rightarrow \infty} \int_{x_0-iy}^{x_0+iy} F(s')e^{s'x}ds'
Something seems wrong though. If I were to take the Laplace transform this equation, I should get F(s) coming out of the right hand side. But when I try this, I get a stray factor of i:
\mathcal{L}(f(x))=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(x)e^{-sx}dx = \frac{1}{2 \pi i} \lim_{y\rightarrow \infty} \int_{x_0-iy}^{x_0+iy} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} F(s&#039;)e^{(s&#039;-s)x}dxds&#039; = \frac{1}{2 \pi i} \lim_{y\rightarrow \infty} \int_{x_0-iy}^{x_0+iy} F(s&#039;) [\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}e^{(s&#039;-s)x}dx]ds&#039;<br /> \frac{1}{2 \pi i} \lim_{y\rightarrow \infty} \int_{x_0-iy}^{x_0+iy} F(s&#039;) \cdot 2 \pi \delta (s&#039;-s)ds&#039;= -i F(s)
I would appreciate it if someone could identify my mistake. Thanks.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Nevermind, I noticed my mistake.
 
Thread 'Direction Fields and Isoclines'
I sketched the isoclines for $$ m=-1,0,1,2 $$. Since both $$ \frac{dy}{dx} $$ and $$ D_{y} \frac{dy}{dx} $$ are continuous on the square region R defined by $$ -4\leq x \leq 4, -4 \leq y \leq 4 $$ the existence and uniqueness theorem guarantees that if we pick a point in the interior that lies on an isocline there will be a unique differentiable function (solution) passing through that point. I understand that a solution exists but I unsure how to actually sketch it. For example, consider a...

Similar threads

Replies
17
Views
3K
Replies
7
Views
5K
Replies
1
Views
3K
Replies
4
Views
3K
Replies
3
Views
3K
Replies
2
Views
2K
Back
Top