- #1
Mr Davis 97
- 1,462
- 44
I have an exercise in my set theory book that states the following: Show that a set ##A## is a relation iff ##A \subseteq \operatorname{dom} A\times \operatorname{ran} B##.
This is an easy exercise, so I am not asking how to prove it. However, I am confused about one thing.
The forward direction is trivial, by the definition of the relation. However, the other direction confuses me, because it uses the dom and ran operations, which I thought were only defined for relations, when in fact we can't assume that ##A## is a relation. Is this saying that dom and ran are defined with respect to arbitrary sets? For example, if ##A = \{1, (2,3)\}##, then dom A = 2 and ran A = 3, where the 1 is just disregarded?
This is an easy exercise, so I am not asking how to prove it. However, I am confused about one thing.
The forward direction is trivial, by the definition of the relation. However, the other direction confuses me, because it uses the dom and ran operations, which I thought were only defined for relations, when in fact we can't assume that ##A## is a relation. Is this saying that dom and ran are defined with respect to arbitrary sets? For example, if ##A = \{1, (2,3)\}##, then dom A = 2 and ran A = 3, where the 1 is just disregarded?