No. All of the "trig substutions" are based on sin^2+ cos^2= 1 and so involve either "1-" or "-1".
Oh, now that was a silly thing for me to say! sin^2(x)+ cos^2(x)= 1 so, dividing through by cos^2(x), we have
tan^2(x)+ 1= sec^2(x), just as Sleek suggested. (I am delighted that, while pointing out that I was completely wrong, he referred to an earlier post of mine!)
Looks to me like a hyperbolic substition should work. Since cosh^2(y)- sinh^2(y)= 1, cosh^2(y)= 1+ sinh^2(y). Let x= sinh(y).