What Is the Range of \( y = \sqrt{\ln(\cos(\sin(x)))} \)?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on determining the range of the function \( y = \sqrt{\ln(\cos(\sin(x)))} \). Initial attempts using a graphing calculator suggested the range might be \{0\}, but further analysis revealed that both 0 and 1 are included in the range. The domain of the function is limited to values where \( \sin(x) \) equals 0, specifically at integer multiples of \( \pi \). The participants clarify the implications of the domains of the cosine and logarithmic functions on the overall range. Ultimately, the consensus is that the range of the function is \{0, 1\}.
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Homework Statement



Find the range ##y = \sqrt{\ln({\cos(\sin (x)}))}##

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
https://www.desmos.com/calculator

I used a graphing calculator to find the intersection between ##y = e^{x^2}## and ##y = \cos(\sin(x))##.
Which I get as ##(0,1)##. So the range is ##\{0\}##.

But I want to find the range without graphs and by analytical methods.
Thanks for help.
 
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What is the range of ##y = cos (x)## ?
 
Buffu said:

Homework Statement



Find the range ##y = \sqrt{\ln({\cos(\sin (x)}))}##

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


[/B]
https://www.desmos.com/calculator

I used a graphing calculator to find the intersection between ##y = e^{x^2}## and ##y = \cos(\sin(x))##.
Which I get as ##(0,1)##. So the range is ##\{0\}##.

But I want to find the range without graphs and by analytical methods.
Thanks for help.
All that you actually found here is that if ##\ x=0\,,\ ## then ##\ y=1\,.\ ## Therefore, 1 is in the range of your function.

I suggest the first thing to do is to determine the (implied) domain of your function.
 
SammyS said:
All that you actually found here is that if ##\ x=0\,,\ ## then ##\ y=1\,.\ ## Therefore, 1 is in the range of your function.

I suggest the first thing to do is to determine the (implied) domain of your function.

Putting x = 0 ##y = \sqrt{\ln(\cos(\sin(0)))} =\sqrt{\ln(\cos 0))} = \sqrt{\ln(1)} = 0##, So y = 0 is also in range.
So the range is {0,1}.

Domain of function is (0 to pi/2) + 2n*pi.
PetSounds said:
What is the range of ##y = cos (x)## ?

[-1,1]
 
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Buffu said:
[-1,1]
And how does that overlap with the domain of ##y = ln (x)##?
 
PetSounds said:
And how does that overlap with the domain of ##y = ln (x)##?

domain of ln x is (0, ##\infty##) .

So ##(0, 1]## part of cos x domain is only useful in this problem
 
Buffu said:
domain of ln x is (0, ##\infty##) .

So ##(0, 1]## part of cos x domain is only useful in this problem
And what is the range of ##ln (x)## for ##0 < x \leq 1## ?
 
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PetSounds said:
And what is the range of ##ln (x)## for ##0 < x \leq 1## ?

less than 0 but we cannot have less than zero because of square root. So only 1 is left; Thus range is {0}.
 
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Buffu said:
less than 0 but we cannot have less than zero because of square root. So only 1 is left; Thus range is {0}.
Bingo.
 
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  • #10
Buffu said:
less than 0 but we cannot have less than zero because of square root. So only 1 is left; Thus range is {0}.

Yes. And the domain of ##f## is also very limited in the real line. What would it (the domain) be?
 
  • #11
Ray Vickson said:
Yes. And the domain of ##f## is also very limited in the real line. What would it (the domain) be?
Domain of my original function would be when sin x is 0, that is 2pi or for general solution 2* pi *n. So my domain would be {x : x = 2pi * n ##\forall n \in \mathbb Z##}. Right ?
 
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  • #12
Buffu said:
when sin x is 0, that is 2pi
There are other solutions.
 
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  • #13
haruspex said:
There are other solutions.
Oh yes sin x is also zero at π So the domain should be {x : x = π * n ∀n ∈ ℤ}
 
  • #14
Buffu said:
Oh yes sin x is also zero at π So the domain should be {x : x = π * n ∀n ∈ ℤ}
Looks right. Your use of the predicates is a little inaccurate. There does not exist an x such that it equals π * n for all integers n. You mean {π * n : n∈ ℤ }
 
  • #15
haruspex said:
Looks right. Your use of the predicates is a little inaccurate. There does not exist an x such that it equals π * n for all integers n. You mean {π * n : n∈ ℤ }
I did not get it. you just removed x.
 
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  • #16
Buffu said:
I did not get it. you just removed x.
What you had posted said :
"the set of things x such that x equals πn for all integers n".
There is no number that can equal πn for two different integers n, let alone all infinity of them.
If you want to use x and n then I suggest using ∃n. Maybe {x:∃n∈ℕ:x=πn}. But why not omit x and write it my way?
 
  • #17
haruspex said:
But why not omit x and write it my way?

Your way is better.

haruspex said:
"the set of things x such that x equals πn for all integers n".
There is no number that can equal πn for two different integers n, let alone all infinity of them.

Oh I understand what you mean.
 
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