dnp33 said:
okay i did know that, but i don't know how to find the root mean square of each waveform.
the problem is in my lack of knowledge of statistics it seems...
First Normalize the waveform. We'll call the normalization constant "
A". Before calculating the standard deviation, we must make sure that the area under the curve is 1, when performing our calculations.
1 = A \int _{-\infty} ^{\infty} f(x) dx
So evaluate the integral, and solve for A.
This problem is a little easier, since in both cases in your particular problem the mean (i.e. expectation value) is going to end up being zero, given the symmetry of each waveform around 0. If you didn't happen to know this, calculating the expectation value (mean), \mu would be your next step.
\mu = A\int _{-\infty}^{\infty}x f(x) dx
But you can probably skip that part here, and assume \mu is zero.
You can calculate the variation \sigma^2 for some function f(x) by using
\sigma^2 = A\int _{-\infty}^{\infty}(x - \mu)^2f(x)dx
Then get to the standard deviation \sigma by
\sigma = \sqrt{\sigma^2}
So in your cases, repace x with either \omega or t to find the respective standard deviations \sigma _{\omega} and \sigma _t; and replace f(x) with your frequency based waveform and time based waveform as appropriate. (And since you know that \mu is going to end up being zero anyway, you might start out with that assumption.)
[Edit: I almost forgot. You need to normalize your waveform first, before finding the standard deviation! Sorry about that. I've made a few edits to the above material, with this in mind]