What is the simplified form of the sum with changed variables?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the simplification of a series involving binomial coefficients and a variable substitution. The original poster presents a sum that requires manipulation to achieve a simplified form, specifically focusing on the expression involving the variable \( z \) and its relationship to combinatorial identities.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore various methods to simplify the sum, including the use of derivatives and power series. There is a suggestion to compare the function to its integral and to express the left-hand side in terms of a power series. Some participants also consider the implications of changing variables and the behavior of coefficients in the series.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of different approaches to tackle the problem. Some participants have offered insights into the use of derivatives and variable changes, while others are questioning the assumptions and definitions involved in the series. The discussion is active, with multiple lines of reasoning being considered.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the sum ranges over nonnegative integers and that there may be constraints related to the convergence of the series. The original poster expresses uncertainty about their prior knowledge of the combinatorial identities involved.

benorin
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I think I should know this already, but I don't; yet I need it, so would you please help me sum this...

[tex]\sum_{n=k}^{\infty} \left(\begin{array}{c}n\\k\end{array}\right) \left( \frac{-z}{1-z}\right) ^{n} = (1-z)(-z)^{k}[/tex]
 
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It's surely easier to look at:

[tex] f(x) = \sum_{n=k}^{+\infty} \binom{n}{k} x^n[/tex]

This is one of the basic combinatorial identities, but I must admit that I have forgotten it, and do not recall how to derive it. :frown:

Hrm, maybe comparing f(x) to the integral of f(x)/x will help?

Also, I notice that the k-th derivative of x^n is:

[tex] \left(\frac{d}{dx}\right)^k \left( x^n \right) = \frac{k!}{x^k} \binom{n}{k} x^n[/tex]

Oh, I think that does it. (Note that, in your sum, you may assume that n ranges over all nonnegative integers)
 
Last edited:
I was first thinking to look at derivatives of the left-hand side, and show that it too is a polynomial of degree k+1 with 0 being a zero of order k, but having no other zeroes where its defined (since its other zero would have to be at 1, but it's not defined there). However, the derivatives just got messy, so I couldn't make this work. The other idea was to express 1/(1-z) on the left as (1 + z + z² + ...). That turns the series on the left into a power series in z. It's easy to check that the resulting power series has 0's for coefficients of all powers of z before the kth power. It's easy to check also that the kth power of z has coefficient (-1)k and that the k+1th power of z has coefficient (-1)k+1.

Somehow, you want to show that the rest have coefficient zero as well. Perhaps you can find a general expression for the jth coefficient in terms of previous coefficients, and solve by method of undetermined coefficients (inductively assuming something about the coefficients). Or maybe you can deal with the derivatives and show that the k+2th derivative is identically 0.
 
Never mind, Hurkyl's way works better. Change variables x = -z/(1-z).

[tex]\sum_{n=k}^{\infty} {{n}\choose{k}} \left( \frac{-z}{1-z}\right) ^n[/tex]

[tex]= \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}{{n}\choose{k}} \left( \frac{-z}{1-z}\right) ^n[/tex]

[tex]= \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}{{n}\choose{k}} x^n[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{x^k}{k!}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{k!}{x^k}{{n}\choose{k}} x^n[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{x^k}{k!}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\left(\frac{d}{dx}\right)^k(x^n)[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{x^k}{k!}\left(\frac{d}{dx}\right)^k\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}x^n[/tex]

[tex]= \frac{x^k}{k!}\left(\frac{d}{dx}\right)^k\left(\frac{1}{1-x}\right)[/tex]
 

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