What is the solution to Killing equations for the given metric?

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Homework Statement


Find all Killing vector solutions of the metric
g_x{_x}=x^2, g_x{_y}=g_y{_x}=0, g_y{_y}=x
where (x^a)=(x^0, x^1)=(x, y)


Homework Equations


Killing equations:
L_Xg_a{_b} = X^e\partial_eg_a{_b}+g_a{_d}\partial_bX^d+g_b{_d}{\partial}_aX^d = 0

The Attempt at a Solution


L_Xg_x{_x} = X^a+x\partial_xX^a=0
L_Xg_x{_y}= L_Xg_y{_x}=x\partial_yX^a+\partial_xX^a=0
L_Xg_y{_y}=X^a+2x\partial_yX^a=0
In the back of the book, it says the solution is \frac{\partial}{{\partial}y}. I don't really know what they mean by that. I've always seen \frac{\partial}{{\partial}y} as an operation that takes the partial derivative of something with respect to y, not a value. I thought perhaps it meant any function that depends only on y and not on x, but if I plug that into the equations above, I get:
f(y)\neq0
x\partial_yf\neq0
f(y)+2x\partial_yf\neq0
I'm pretty sure I've got the equations correct; I just don't know what they mean when they say the solution is \frac{\partial}{{\partial}y}.
 
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The equations in the first post are wrong. The equations should be:L_Xg_x{_x}=2xX^x+2x^2\partial_xX^x=0L_Xg_x{_y}=L_Xg_y{_x}=x^2\partial_yX^x+x\partial_xX^y=0L_Xg_y{_y}=X^x+2x\partial_yX^y=0
The first equation restricts you to X^x=\frac{1}{x}f(y), and anything I do with the second and third equations, I come up with -\frac{1}{2x^3}f(y)=\partial_y\partial_yf(y). Obviously, there is no solution to this except f(y)=0, so I'm still finding the only possible solution to be X^x=0, X^y=c.

I found out that \frac{\partial}{{\partial}y} indeed means any function of y. I'm not sure why they would offer that as a solution when there are 2 vectors I am solving for. Can anyone figure out why \frac{\partial}{{\partial}y} is a solution in the back of the book?
 
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d/dx and d/dy are a basis for the space of tangent vectors. So a general vector is written as X^x*d/dx+X^y*d/dy. Saying d/dy is a solution is just saying X^x=0 and X^y=1 is a solution. And it is, isn't it? You've already shown that. If you think of what a Killing vector means as an isometry of the metric, then d/dy corresponds to translation in the y direction. And it's pretty obvious that's an isometry, yes?
 
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Prove $$\int\limits_0^{\sqrt2/4}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\arcsin\sqrt{\frac{(x-1)\left(x-1+x\sqrt{9-16x}\right)}{1-2x}} \, \mathrm dx = \frac{\pi^2}{8}.$$ Let $$I = \int\limits_0^{\sqrt 2 / 4}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\arcsin\sqrt{\frac{(x-1)\left(x-1+x\sqrt{9-16x}\right)}{1-2x}} \, \mathrm dx. \tag{1}$$ The representation integral of ##\arcsin## is $$\arcsin u = \int\limits_{0}^{1} \frac{\mathrm dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}, \qquad 0 \leqslant u \leqslant 1.$$ Plugging identity above into ##(1)## with ##u...
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