What is the solution to the improper integral of 1/x?

In summary, the conversation discusses the evaluation of the integral \int^{\infty}_a \frac{\dx}{x} with a positive constant a, in which the limit does not exist. This is due to the fact that even though the function approaches zero, it does so too slowly for the integral to converge. The conversation also mentions the divergence of the series 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + 1/5 + 1/6 + 1/7 + 1/8 +..., and the fact that an infinite charge distribution may result in an infinite potential. Finally, the conversation notes that the logarithmic functions are increasing and this is the reason why the integral is improper.
  • #1
speeding electron
65
0
OK, so I'm trying to work out this:
[tex] \int^{\infty}_a \frac{\dx}{x} [/tex]
Where [tex] a [/tex] is a positive constant. Can you evaluate this analytically? I'm thinking the limit must exist, but [tex] \ln \left( \infty \right) = \infty [/tex] , or at least tends to it in the limit. So can someone tell me the deal?

p.s. There's a dx ontop of that fraction, which has mysteriously disappeared into the abyss.
 
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  • #2
[tex]\int_a^\infty\frac{dx}{x}=\lim_{b\rightarrow\infty}\int_a^b\frac{dx}{x}=\lim_{b\rightarrow\infty}[\ln b-\ln a]=\infty[/tex]

So the limit does not exist.
 
  • #3
This seems very strange to me, seeing as
[tex] \lim_{b \rightarrow \infty } \frac{1}{b} = 0 [/tex] . The matter arose while I was trying to find an electric potential in electrostatics by integrating the electric field from infinity to the point in question. The field was proportional to the reciprocal of the distance.
 
  • #4
Just because the function you are integrating goes to zero, it doesn't mean that the integral will be defined. Integrals like [tex]\int_a^\infty\frac{dx}{x^2}[/tex] are defined, but functions like 1/x go to zero too "slowly" for the integral to converge.
 
  • #5
Yeah, it's odd that the the integral of [itex]1/x[/itex] diverges, even if it diverges very very slowly. It's the same for the summation:

[tex]\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{1}{k} = \infty[/tex]
 
  • #6
speeding electron said:
This seems very strange to me, seeing as
[tex] \lim_{b \rightarrow \infty } \frac{1}{b} = 0 [/tex] . The matter arose while I was trying to find an electric potential in electrostatics by integrating the electric field from infinity to the point in question. The field was proportional to the reciprocal of the distance.
Two important points. The electric field decreases with the square of the distance. That's why the integral converges. As far as 1/x goes, just keep in mind that while the curve might approach the axis as x->inf it doesn't mean that the the area under the curve does.

Pete
 
  • #7
Notice that in the series 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + 1/5 + 1/6 + 1/7 + 1/8 +...

That the first term is 1/2, the sum of next two terms is > 1/2, the sum of th3 next four is > 1/2, and the sum of the next eight terms is > 1/2, etc...,

so the sum grows very slowly to as large as you like. I.e. at each stage, it always takes "twice as long" to get larger by another 1/2 as it did before, but it eventually does so.
 
  • #8
OK thanks, I think the trouble with my electrostatics lay in the fact that I was using an approximation to an infinite charge distribution, in which case (i.e. an idealized one) the potential may well be infinite. How ill-behaved of 1/x to keep eeking out a living.
 
  • #9
The logarithmic functions are increasing functions if the base is larger than 1. That's why this integral is improper.
 

1. What is an improper integral of 1/x?

An improper integral of 1/x is an integral that cannot be evaluated using standard integration techniques because it has a singularity at x=0. This means that the function 1/x is undefined at x=0, making it impossible to integrate over that point.

2. How do you solve an improper integral of 1/x?

To solve an improper integral of 1/x, it is necessary to split the integral into two parts: one from a to b, where a is a small positive number and b is a large positive number, and another from b to infinity. The first part can be evaluated using standard integration techniques, while the second part can be evaluated using the limit definition of the integral.

3. What is the significance of the singularity at x=0 in an improper integral of 1/x?

The singularity at x=0 in an improper integral of 1/x indicates that the function is not continuous at that point. This means that the area under the curve cannot be calculated using traditional integration methods, and instead, the limit of the function at x=0 must be taken to find the value of the integral.

4. Can an improper integral of 1/x have a finite value?

Yes, an improper integral of 1/x can have a finite value if the limit of the function at x=0 exists. In this case, the integral can be evaluated using the limit definition, and the resulting value will be a finite number.

5. What is the relationship between an improper integral of 1/x and the natural logarithm function?

The natural logarithm function, ln(x), is the antiderivative of 1/x. This means that the derivative of ln(x) is equal to 1/x. Therefore, an improper integral of 1/x can be written as the natural logarithm of the limit of the function as it approaches 0. This relationship can be seen in the solution to improper integrals of 1/x using the limit definition.

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