What lies left of a random number on a line of integers

AI Thread Summary
When selecting a random number from an infinite set of non-negative integers, the concept of probability becomes complex, as assigning equal likelihood to each number leads to contradictions. The discussion highlights that while there are infinitely many numbers to the right, the finite set to the left can lead to the conclusion that there is a high probability of encountering a very large number. The conversation also touches on the philosophical implications of this idea, particularly in relation to theories about the universe's cyclical nature. Ultimately, the challenge lies in defining a valid probability model for such an infinite set. The exploration of these concepts raises intriguing questions about randomness and infinity in mathematics.
Tomon
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When I pick a random number on a number line made out of integers, starting from zero and expanding infinite to the right, what can I say about the position of this random number ?
To the right the amount of numbers is infinite.
To the left is an amount, a number, so that is finite, but it has an ´almost´ infinite big chance of being the biggest number ever. (and of course if could also be, for example, 103 or a googolplexian, but there is an almost infinite small chance it will be that small...).

Does that make sense ? Please comment on this.
 
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Tomon said:
When I pick a random number on a number line made out of integers, starting from zero and expanding infinite to the right, what can I say about the position of this random number ?
To the right the amount of numbers is infinite.
To the left is an amount, a number, so that is finite, but it has an ´almost´ infinite big chance of being the biggest number ever. (and of course if could also be, for example, 103 or a googolplexian, but there is an almost infinite small chance it will be that small...).

Does that make sense ? Please comment on this.
You have to start by setting up a correct probability model. The sample space ##\Omega := \mathbb{Z}_+##, the set of non-negative integers. The collection ##\mathcal{A}## of events ("measurable subsets of ##\Omega##") is simply the power set of ##\Omega##, so ##\mathcal{A} := 2^{\Omega}##. Now, concerning the probability measure, there is no such measure that assigns equal probability to all non-negative integers, because that measure would assign infinite mass to ##\Omega## itself. Indeed, any valid probability measure ##P## on ##\mathcal{A}## assigns to a singleton ##k \in \Omega## the probability ##p_k \in [0,1]## in such a way that
$$
\text{probability of occurrence of event } E = P(E) = \sum_{k \in E}{p_k}, \qquad P(\Omega) = 1
$$
An example is the often encountered Poisson distribution, for which ##p_k := e^{-\lambda}\frac{\lambda^k}{k!}## for ##k \in \Omega##, where ##\lambda > 0## is a fixed parameter. So, given any admissible ##P## ,
  • the probability of finding exactly the number ##m## is ##p_m \in [0,1]##,
  • the probability of finding a number ##\le m## is simply ##\sum_{k=0}^m{p_k} < \infty##,
  • the probability of finding a number ##> m## is ##\sum_{k=m+1}^{\infty}{p_k} < \infty##.
All these probabilities are finite.
 
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Tomon said:
When I pick a random number on a number line made out of integers, starting from zero and expanding infinite to the right, what can I say about the position of this random number ?
To the right the amount of numbers is infinite.
To the left is an amount, a number, so that is finite, but it has an ´almost´ infinite big chance of being the biggest number ever. (and of course if could also be, for example, 103 or a googolplexian, but there is an almost infinite small chance it will be that small...).

Does that make sense ? Please comment on this.

When people say "pick a random number" it is usually implied of picking a number from a set, with equal probability of choosing any number. It is impossible to do this with an infinite set. Assuming that it is possible leads to a contradiction, which is what you seem to be wrestling with.
 
Hornbein said:
When people say "pick a random number" it is usually implied of picking a number from a set, with equal probability of choosing any number. It is impossible to do this with an infinite set. Assuming that it is possible leads to a contradiction, which is what you seem to be wrestling with.

Thanks for your reply. The problem came up for me because I was thinking about the possibility the universe is in an infinite loop of expanding and contracting
(the closed model) since the first time ´once´ in the ´past´ . Looking at this theory, I was thinking about the number of times the universe would have expanded and contracted before our existence in this cycle. That is, as I concluded, the same as choosing a random number on a line of integers, so a came up with the idea the chance is very high it is a very large number.
 
Tomon said:
Thanks for your reply.
You are welcome...
 
I was reading a Bachelor thesis on Peano Arithmetic (PA). PA has the following axioms (not including the induction schema): $$\begin{align} & (A1) ~~~~ \forall x \neg (x + 1 = 0) \nonumber \\ & (A2) ~~~~ \forall xy (x + 1 =y + 1 \to x = y) \nonumber \\ & (A3) ~~~~ \forall x (x + 0 = x) \nonumber \\ & (A4) ~~~~ \forall xy (x + (y +1) = (x + y ) + 1) \nonumber \\ & (A5) ~~~~ \forall x (x \cdot 0 = 0) \nonumber \\ & (A6) ~~~~ \forall xy (x \cdot (y + 1) = (x \cdot y) + x) \nonumber...

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