PerilousGourd
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This question was inspired by 3c) on https://people.phys.ethz.ch/~muellrom/qm1_2012/Solutions4.pdf
Given the operator
<br /> \hat{B} = \left(\matrix{b&0&0\\0&0&-ib\\0&ib&0}\right)<br />
I find correctly that the eigenvalues are \lambda = b, \pm b.
To find the eigenvectors for b, I do the following
<br /> \left(\matrix{b&0&0\\0&0&-ib\\0&ib&0}\right) \left(\matrix{x\\y\\z}\right) = b \left(\matrix{x\\y\\z}\right)<br />
<br /> bx = bx \hspace{10em} y = -iz \hspace{10em} z = iy\\<br />
<br /> \hat{x} = \left(\matrix{t\\-iz\\iy}\right)\\<br /> = \left(\matrix{t\\y\\iy}\right)<br />
The pdf then seems to split this into two eigenvectors
<br /> \hat{x}_1 = \left(\matrix{t\\0\\0}\right) = \left(\matrix{1\\0\\0}\right) \hspace{5em} \text{and} \hspace{5em} \hat{x}_2 = \left(\matrix{0\\y\\iy}\right) = y\left(\matrix{0\\1\\i}\right)<br />
which 'span the eigenspace' of \lambda = b.Why is this allowed (separation of one eigenvector into multiple) and when should it be done?
Would it be technically acceptable to divide it further into (1,0,0), y(0,1,0) and y(0,0,i)? My current guess is that doing this would be acceptable but just not practical, and the reason the eigenvector here was divided into two was purely because of the t making it difficult to factor the y out. Is this right, or is there a deeper meaning I'm missing? (All these eigenvectors are pre-normalization)
Given the operator
<br /> \hat{B} = \left(\matrix{b&0&0\\0&0&-ib\\0&ib&0}\right)<br />
I find correctly that the eigenvalues are \lambda = b, \pm b.
To find the eigenvectors for b, I do the following
<br /> \left(\matrix{b&0&0\\0&0&-ib\\0&ib&0}\right) \left(\matrix{x\\y\\z}\right) = b \left(\matrix{x\\y\\z}\right)<br />
<br /> bx = bx \hspace{10em} y = -iz \hspace{10em} z = iy\\<br />
<br /> \hat{x} = \left(\matrix{t\\-iz\\iy}\right)\\<br /> = \left(\matrix{t\\y\\iy}\right)<br />
The pdf then seems to split this into two eigenvectors
<br /> \hat{x}_1 = \left(\matrix{t\\0\\0}\right) = \left(\matrix{1\\0\\0}\right) \hspace{5em} \text{and} \hspace{5em} \hat{x}_2 = \left(\matrix{0\\y\\iy}\right) = y\left(\matrix{0\\1\\i}\right)<br />
which 'span the eigenspace' of \lambda = b.Why is this allowed (separation of one eigenvector into multiple) and when should it be done?
Would it be technically acceptable to divide it further into (1,0,0), y(0,1,0) and y(0,0,i)? My current guess is that doing this would be acceptable but just not practical, and the reason the eigenvector here was divided into two was purely because of the t making it difficult to factor the y out. Is this right, or is there a deeper meaning I'm missing? (All these eigenvectors are pre-normalization)
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