Where do mathematical inequalities come from?

Terrell
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what do you think are the inspirations or motivations that lead to inequality statements like am-gm, bernoullie's inequality, etc...? are they inspired by physics, engineering...? learning them for the first time made me wonder where they came from. thanks!
 
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Inequality statements are inspired by the desire to communicate.
Every time you want to say that something occupies all values up to (and maybe including) a certain one, you will need an inequality statement.
Like, I am working all "days from now up to next thursday inclusive" is an inequality statement.
 
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Simon Bridge's response makes so good sense that I want to apply TWO "like"s to it but doing so only cancels the first "like".
 
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Maths is a language ... :)
 
For instance:
If d is a day in which I am working, and today is day a, and "next Thursday" is day t, then I am working: ##a\leq d \leq t##
If I start work tomorrow, instead, then ##a < d \leq t## ... it's a nice short way to write it down.
If my days are numbered (and I don't count parts of days) then ##a < d \leq t## is the same as ##a+1 \leq d \leq t## because a+1 will be the day after today.
 
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Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. In Dirac’s Principles of Quantum Mechanics published in 1930 he introduced a “convenient notation” he referred to as a “delta function” which he treated as a continuum analog to the discrete Kronecker delta. The Kronecker delta is simply the indexed components of the identity operator in matrix algebra Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/what-exactly-is-diracs-delta-function/ by...
Fermat's Last Theorem has long been one of the most famous mathematical problems, and is now one of the most famous theorems. It simply states that the equation $$ a^n+b^n=c^n $$ has no solutions with positive integers if ##n>2.## It was named after Pierre de Fermat (1607-1665). The problem itself stems from the book Arithmetica by Diophantus of Alexandria. It gained popularity because Fermat noted in his copy "Cubum autem in duos cubos, aut quadratoquadratum in duos quadratoquadratos, et...
I'm interested to know whether the equation $$1 = 2 - \frac{1}{2 - \frac{1}{2 - \cdots}}$$ is true or not. It can be shown easily that if the continued fraction converges, it cannot converge to anything else than 1. It seems that if the continued fraction converges, the convergence is very slow. The apparent slowness of the convergence makes it difficult to estimate the presence of true convergence numerically. At the moment I don't know whether this converges or not.
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