Where Does the Equation for Normalization and Expectation Come From?

gfd43tg
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Hello,

I am very confused how this is true? Where does this come from??
$$<f| \hat{Q}f> = (\sum_{n}a_{n}^{*} |\psi_{n}>)(\sum_{m}a_{m} \hat{Q} | \psi_{m}>)$$

thanks
 
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Maylis said:
Hello,

I am very confused how this is true? Where does this come from??
$$<f| \hat{Q}f> = (\sum_{n}a_{n}^{*} |\psi_{n}>)(\sum_{m}a_{m} \hat{Q} | \psi_{m}>)$$

thanks
I think your formula is slightly wrong. If you have a complete set of orthonormal basis states |\psi_m\rangle, then you can write an arbitrary state |f\rangle as a linear combination of basis states:

|f\rangle = \sum_m a_m |\psi_m\rangle

That being the case, you take the adjoint of both sides:

|f\rangle^\dagger = \langle f | = \sum_m a_m^* \langle \psi_m|

So as to not mix up the indices, let's relabel m by n in this expression:

|f\rangle^\dagger = \langle f | = \sum_n a_n^* \langle \psi_n|

Then it follows automatically that

\langle f|\hat{O}|f\rangle = (\sum_n a_n^* \langle \psi_n|)\ \hat{O}\ ( \sum_m a_m |\psi_m\rangle)

which can also be written as:
\langle f|\hat{O}|f\rangle = (\sum_n a_n |\psi\rangle)^\dagger\ \hat{O}\ ( \sum_m a_m |\psi_m\rangle)

Maybe you don't know what \langle f| means? Well, you know that for ordinary wave functions, you define \langle f|g\rangle to be the integral:

\langle f|g\rangle = \int dx f^*(x) g(x)

Then you can define \langle f| as that operator that acts on |g\rangle to produce \langle f|g\rangle
 
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Ok, I was definitely unaware that ##|f \rangle^{ \dagger} = \langle f|##. No wonder I was so confused over the definition of a hermition conjugate, how somehow moving the operator to the bra somehow made it a complex conjugate.You are right, I am very shaky about ##\langle f|##. I understand the ket is a vector, but what is the bra? I know you say its an operator that acts on the vector g to produce the inner product, but that leaves me feeling icky inside. As in no intuition at all.
 
Maylis said:
Ok, I was definitely unaware that ##|f \rangle^{ \dagger} = \langle f|##. No wonder I was so confused over the definition of a hermition conjugate, how somehow moving the operator to the bra somehow made it a complex conjugate.You are right, I am very shaky about ##\langle f|##. I understand the ket is a vector, but what is the bra? I know you say its an operator that acts on the vector g to produce the inner product, but that leaves me feeling icky inside. As in no intuition at all.

Well, the simplest case is when there are only a finite number of states. For example, an electron's state, if you ignore the spatial part, is a two-state system: It can be spin-up or spin-down. So if we use matrices to represent the states, then we can have:

|\psi_1\rangle = \left( \begin{array}\\ 1 \\ 0 \end{array} \right) which represents spin-up

|\psi_2\rangle = \left( \begin{array}\\ 0 \\ 1 \end{array} \right) which represents spin-down

An arbitrary state |f\rangle is a combination:

|f\rangle = a_1 |\psi_1\rangle + a_2 |\psi_2\rangle = \left( \begin{array}\\ a_1 \\ a_2 \end{array} \right)

Then |f\rangle^\dagger is just \left( \begin{array}\\ a_1^* &amp; a_2^* \end{array} \right). You compute |g\rangle^\dagger |f\rangle by matrix multiplication: If |g\rangle is \left( \begin{array}\\ b_1 \\ b_2 \end{array} \right), then

|g\rangle^\dagger |f\rangle = \left( \begin{array}\\ b_1^* &amp; b_2^* \end{array} \right)\ \left( \begin{array}\\ a_1 \\ a_2 \end{array} \right) = b_1^* a_1 + b_2^* a_2

To generalize to an infinite, but countable, number of states,
|g\rangle^\dagger |f\rangle = \sum_i b_i^* a_i

To generalize to a continuous number of states,

|g\rangle^\dagger |f\rangle = \int dx\ g(x)^* f(x)
 
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Thanks, that clears things up a lot.
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. Towards the end of the first lecture for the Qiskit Global Summer School 2025, Foundations of Quantum Mechanics, Olivia Lanes (Global Lead, Content and Education IBM) stated... Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/quantum-entanglement-is-a-kinematic-fact-not-a-dynamical-effect/ by @RUTA
If we release an electron around a positively charged sphere, the initial state of electron is a linear combination of Hydrogen-like states. According to quantum mechanics, evolution of time would not change this initial state because the potential is time independent. However, classically we expect the electron to collide with the sphere. So, it seems that the quantum and classics predict different behaviours!

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