MHB Whitman 8.4.7 integrate by parts

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The discussion focuses on solving the integral of x arctan(x) using integration by parts (IBP). Participants highlight the importance of selecting the correct functions for u and dv, with a recommendation to apply the LIATE rule to choose u as the inverse trig function. The initial attempt to differentiate rather than integrate is corrected, leading to a successful formulation of the integral. The final result is presented as I = (x² arctan(x) + arctan(x) - x) / 2 + C. The conversation emphasizes the significance of proper function selection in integration techniques.
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$\tiny{Whitman \ \ \ 8.4.7 }$
$\displaystyle
\int x \arctan\left({x}\right) \ dx
=\frac {{x}^{2} \arctan\left({x}\right)
+\arctan\left({x}\right)
- x} {2 } + C$
$\displaystyle uv-\int v \ du $

$\begin{align}\displaystyle
u& = x& dv&= \arctan\left({x}\right) \ dx \\
du&=dx& v& =\frac{1}{{x}^{2 }+1}
\end{align}$
So..
$$\frac{x}{{x}^{2 }+1} - \int\frac{1}{{x}^{2 }+1} \ dx$$
But this doesn't seem to be going toward the answer...
 
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Your value for $v$ is incorrect...you've differentiated rather than integrated.

Try using the LIATE rule...it essentially tells you to try the inverse trig. function as your $u$ in this case.
 
Why would I integrate u

The book examples were

u dv
du v
 
Last edited:
karush said:
OK I see
Got distracted by the Hillary nom pom.

LIATE rule ?

Yes, this rule tells you that when faced with a choice for candidates for your $u$ in IBP, to try functions in this order:

  • Logarithmic
  • Inverse Trig.
  • Algebraic
  • Trigonometric
  • Exponential

You integrand here has an algebraic function and an inverse trig. function, so try letting $u=\arctan(x)$.

Here's more on the LIATE rule:

LIATE Rule
 
$\tiny{Whitman \ \ \ 8.4.7 }$
$\displaystyle
I=\int x \arctan\left({x}\right) \ dx
=\frac {{x}^{2} \arctan\left({x}\right)
+\arctan\left({x}\right)
- x} {2 } + C$
$\displaystyle uv-\int v \ du $

$\begin{align}\displaystyle
u& = \arctan\left({x}\right) &
dv&=x \ dx \\
du&=\frac{1}{{x}^{2 }+1}
dx& v& =\frac{{x}^{2 }}{2}
\end{align}$
So..
$$\frac{{x}^{2 }}{2} \arctan\left({x}\right)
-\frac{1}{2 } \int \frac{{x}^{2 }}{{x}^{2 }+1} \ dx$$
Then
$$I=\frac {{x}^{2} \arctan\left({x}\right)
+\arctan\left({x}\right)
- x} {2 } + C$$
 
Last edited:
There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

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