Why are orthonormal basis functions important in quantum physics?

kdlsw
Messages
16
Reaction score
0
I do understand the probability of a wave function ψ is given by ∫ψ* ψ d3x, which after normalization is equal to 1. However, I then saw the following, ∫ψn* ψmmn

Here is my understanding, the discussion is about discrete eigenfunction and value as expressed in m and n, ψn and ψm are two discrete wave functions, and with the orthonormal method, they are arranged to be ∫ψn* ψm=1 when m=n and 0 when m≠n.

What I don't understand is, doesn't such form equal to ∫ψ* ψ d3x ? Where the complex conjugate and normal wave function part comes from the same ψ. What is the point of discussing the complex conjugate of a different wave function ψn* in the first place? Are ψn ψm just two different states of the same wave function ψ?

Thanks a lot
 
Physics news on Phys.org
##\psi## in the first equation is a general wave function. It can describe some particle somewhere. The ##\psi_n## are a set of orthonormal basis functions. Usually they are the eigenfunctions of some important operator (quite often the Hamiltonian). They provide a convenient way in which to express your general wave function:

$$\psi=\sum_n c_n\psi_n$$

Any ##\psi## can be expressed this way provided that the ##\psi_n## form a complete basis of the Hilbert space. It's useful that the basis functions are ortho-normal so that taking inner products is easy.
 
Matterwave said:
##\psi## in the first equation is a general wave function. It can describe some particle somewhere. The ##\psi_n## are a set of orthonormal basis functions. Usually they are the eigenfunctions of some important operator (quite often the Hamiltonian). They provide a convenient way in which to express your general wave function:

$$\psi=\sum_n c_n\psi_n$$

Any ##\psi## can be expressed this way provided that the ##\psi_n## form a complete basis of the Hilbert space. It's useful that the basis functions are ortho-normal so that taking inner products is easy.

Thanks a lot, but if I may ask a bit more, what is the meaning of having ∫ψn* ψm if they are just basis functions?
 
What do you mean by "meaning of having..."? I'm not sure what your question is so I don't know how to answer adequately. Could you maybe rephrase it? The basis functions ##\psi_n## are called orthonormal if:

$$\int \psi_n^*(x)\psi_m(x) dx=\delta_{n,m}\quad \forall n,m$$

There's nothing special happening here. The fact that the basis functions are orthonormal means you can get ##c_n## really easily:

$$\int \psi^*(x)\psi_n(x)dx=\int\sum_m c_m^*\psi_m^*(x)\psi_n(x)dx=\sum_m c_m^*\delta_{m,n}=c_n^*$$
 
Matterwave said:
What do you mean by "meaning of having..."? I'm not sure what your question is so I don't know how to answer adequately. Could you maybe rephrase it? The basis functions ##\psi_n## are called orthonormal if:

$$\int \psi_n^*(x)\psi_m(x) dx=\delta_{n,m}\quad \forall n,m$$

There's nothing special happening here. The fact that the basis functions are orthonormal means you can get ##c_n## really easily:

$$\int \psi^*(x)\psi_n(x)dx=\int\sum_m c_m^*\psi_m^*(x)\psi_n(x)dx=\sum_m c_m^*\delta_{m,n}=c_n^*$$

Got it, Thanks!
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top