The idea is that adding a small amount to the area is like adding the value of the derivative at that area. OK, so, let's say f is a well behaved function and let F(x) be the area under f between 0 and x. Now, let's try to find the area under f from x to x+h. One way of doing this is to compute F(x+h)-F(x). Another way of estimating this is by hf(x). That is,
f(x) \simeq \frac{F(x+h)-F(x)}{h}.
Now, let's take the limit as h \to 0. Then we see that f(x) = F'(x). So, the derivative of the integral is the function inside the integral. Or, the derivative inside the integral is the antiderivative of the integral.
Well, he is basically asking why FTC is true, so appealing to FTC probably isn't very satisfying. And, if I remember correctly, this was first proven by Isaac Barrow - who was Isaac Newton's teacher (if I remember.) I can almost guarantee that they had some intuitive reason to believe that it was true. That is, they just didn't say "hey this is probably true; I have no reason to think it is true, but I'm going to try to prove it anyway."
Another way to think of it is like this. Let's say that you know how fast someone is traveling from t=0 to t=t_0 where t is measured in seconds. You want to know how far he is gone. How can you do this? Now, try to apply similar reasoning to what I did above.