Why Do Harmonic Motion Equations Differ Across Sources?

AI Thread Summary
Different sources present harmonic motion equations with varying notations and forms, leading to confusion. The equation for an underdamped harmonic oscillator can be expressed in multiple ways, with the differences often arising from the choice of parameters and initial conditions. When damping is minimal, the equations can simplify, indicating that the two terms in some equations represent amplitude and phase. In overdamped cases, the presence of two exponential decay terms reflects different rates of decay, although their physical significance remains unclear. Understanding these variations can clarify the behavior of harmonic oscillators under different damping conditions.
Cog77
Messages
2
Reaction score
0
I was hoping that someone could explain why these different equations can be found from different sources please.

The time dependent position, x(t), of an underdamped harmonic oscillator is given by:

x(t)=e^{-\gamma t}acos(\omega_{1}t-\alpha)

where \gamma is the damping coefficient, and \omega_{1} is the frequency of the damped oscillator. This is the equation I am familiar with and can be found in many explanations of harmonic oscillators, e.g. here.

In contrast, Wolfram gives the following equation (note that this is copied from their website, and it uses different notation to the equation above. In particular \gamma is NOT the damping coefficient):

x(t)=e^{-\frac{\beta t}{2}}[Acos(\gamma t)+Bsin(\gamma t)]

I believe that changing this equation to use the same notation as the first thing I posted gives this:

x(t)=e^{-\gamma t}[Acos(\omega_{1}t)+Bsin(\omega_{1}t)]


So here is what I'd like to understand:

1) Why are these different? I tried to see if there was a case when A>>B, which I found happens if the initial velocity is zero, \dot{x}(0)=0, and \zeta<<\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}. Where \zeta is the damping ratio. In other words, when there is very little damping the Wolfram equation reduces to the shorter equation. Is that correct?

2) Whether or not that's correct, I don't understand why there would sometimes be two terms in the equation. What does that physically represent?

3) I actually started looking at this after getting confused about the overdamped case in a similar way. It also has two terms, and I believe that it reduces to a single term when there is a lot of damping (\zeta>>1). Again, what does it physically mean when there are two terms? Although hopefully understanding one case will lead to an understanding of both, so maybe this question is redundant.

Thanks for any help!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Hi Cog77! Welcome to PF! :smile:
Cog77 said:
x(t)=e^{-\gamma t}acos(\omega_{1}t-\alpha)

x(t)=e^{-\gamma t}[Acos(\omega_{1}t)+Bsin(\omega_{1}t)]

A = acosα, B = asinα :wink:
 
All the equations are equivalent to each other
 
Hint: to your first equation, apply the trig identity

cos (u - v) = cos u cos v + sin u sin v
 
Aah thanks guys! Should have spotted that...

So physically the two terms account for the amplitude and the phase?

What about the overdamped case?

x(t)=Ae^{r_{-}t}+Be^{r_{+}t}

with

r_{\pm}=\frac{1}{2}-\beta\pm\sqrt{\beta^{2}-4\omega_{0}^{2}}

Does the fact that the expression contains faster and slower decaying terms mean something physically? This was where my confusion originally came from as I always assumed there was just a single exponential term in the overdamped case.
 
An intriguing question. I can't think of any significance in there being a fast term and a slow term, but would love to be shown to be missing something.

Instead, I can, perhaps remove some of the motivation for the search. It is easy to show that in the case when the body is displaced and released from rest, A and B are equal and opposite. In that when you pull out e^{- \frac{\beta t}{2}} as a factor you're left with a multiplied cosh function. So it doesn't look like two added terms any longer!

This is somewhat similar to writing A\ \mbox {cos}\ \omega t + B\ \mbox {sin}\ \omega t as a\ \mbox {cos}\ (\omega t + \epsilon)
 
Last edited:
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Hello everyone, Consider the problem in which a car is told to travel at 30 km/h for L kilometers and then at 60 km/h for another L kilometers. Next, you are asked to determine the average speed. My question is: although we know that the average speed in this case is the harmonic mean of the two speeds, is it also possible to state that the average speed over this 2L-kilometer stretch can be obtained as a weighted average of the two speeds? Best regards, DaTario
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?

Similar threads

Back
Top