Icebreaker
"Let F(x,y)=( -y/(x^2+y^2),x/(x^2+y^2))
(a)Show that \frac{\partial F_1}{\partial y}=\frac{\partial F_2}{\partial x} except at the origin."
Is it me or are they not actually equal?
(a)Show that \frac{\partial F_1}{\partial y}=\frac{\partial F_2}{\partial x} except at the origin."
Is it me or are they not actually equal?