Why do we need postulate 4 in Euclid's element (P14)?

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SUMMARY

Postulate 4 in Euclid's Elements is essential for establishing the equality of angles constructed at different positions, specifically in Proposition 14. The discussion clarifies that while Common Notion 1 states that if two quantities are equal to a third, they are equal to each other, it lacks the necessary framework to apply to angles without Postulate 4. Euclid's definition of a right angle is a geometrical construction, which cannot be proven equal without this postulate. Therefore, Postulate 4 is crucial for validating the equality of angles in geometric proofs.

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  • Understanding of Euclidean geometry principles
  • Familiarity with Euclid's Elements, particularly Proposition 14
  • Knowledge of Common Notion 1 and its implications
  • Basic comprehension of geometric constructions and definitions
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  • Study Euclid's Postulate 4 and its applications in geometry
  • Examine Proposition 13 in Euclid's Elements for context on angle sums
  • Explore the implications of geometrical constructions on angle equality
  • Investigate the differences between Euclidean and non-Euclidean geometries
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http://aleph0.clarku.edu/~djoyce/java/elements/bookI/propI14.html

Hi, I was reading proposition 14 of Euclid's elements and there is only one thing which I find weird : why do we need postulate 4 to conclude that " the sum of the angles CBA and ABE equals the sum of the angles CBA and ABD."

Why can't we just use common notion 1 ? It seems useless to me to use the postulate...

Thank you !
 
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Euclid's definition of a right angle (definition 10) is a geometrical construction. You can't prove that right angles constructed at different positions are equal, so you need postulate 4 to say they are equal.

In modern notation, common notion 1 says "if x = a and y = a, then x = y". In the figure for proposition 14, if you call CBA+ABE x and CBA+ABD y, you don't have anything that corresponds to "a" in common notion 1.

Even if you constructed two more right angles somewhere in the figure and called then "a", you still need postulate 4 to say that x = a and y = a. But Euclid used postulate 4 directly to say that x = y.
 
AlephZero said:
Euclid's definition of a right angle (definition 10) is a geometrical construction. You can't prove that right angles constructed at different positions are equal, so you need postulate 4 to say they are equal.

In modern notation, common notion 1 says "if x = a and y = a, then x = y". In the figure for proposition 14, if you call CBA+ABE x and CBA+ABD y, you don't have anything that corresponds to "a" in common notion 1.

Even if you constructed two more right angles somewhere in the figure and called then "a", you still need postulate 4 to say that x = a and y = a. But Euclid used postulate 4 directly to say that x = y.

I don't think I understand your explanation... Didn't Euclid "prove" with proposition 13 that the sum of two angles were equal to two right angles ? And that we begin the demonstration assuming that the sum of the angle CBA and ABD were equal to two right angles ? What role does postulate 4 play here if I want to make things which equal the same thing equal one another ? What errors would I get if I just applied common notion 1 ?Thank you again for your help!
 

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