)
jssamp said:
It's not possible using integers. The bias that led to the name is inherent in that statement. Why are integers your measuring stick for "realness". Is pi not a real value. what about the distance across my square room corner to corner, is that not a real distance? It isn't rational.
I think that the measuring stick for "realness" (a term you introduced, I didn't) is that it is derived from Peano's axioms, extended with limits, and isn't
contradictory to those systems. The fact that Rene Descartes coined the term imaginary is perfectly suited, because that an even root of a negative real number has an answer is neither intuitive nor is it useful in the graphical domain as an extension of the Cartesian plane. I appealed to integers because you mentioned them in
your post, and because integers arise as an necessary extension of the natural numbers when the operation of subtraction is introduced. In a way, complex numbers draw a parallel to this, as the definition which extends the reals to the complex numbers fulfills a similar role and is no doubt useful in fluid dynamics, electrical engineering, and other sciences. However, the point I was trying to make is that while integers and rationals and reals have a way of being interpreted graphically on the Cartesian plane, ## i ## (as far as I know) has no similar role. How can it, as it exists outside the partially ordered plane? (This necessitates creating the complex plane mapping this new set onto one of the axes.)
Let's talk about the diagonal of your room. From one corner to it's kitty corner, has a length, and if you were to measure it with a ruler, you could accept a rational or non-terminating, non-repeating value (if you wanted to use mathematical formula and use the Pythagorean theorem), but what you CAN'T get for a length is an imaginary value. That's because in the theorem, the hypotenuse is the root of the squares of two reals (which regardless of their signs in the context of vectors) must be a positive value. Hence your room can never have an imaginary value. THAT'S why complex numbers are not intuitive like the naturals, integers, rationals, or even to some extent the reals (where the epsilon-delta definition doesn't eliminate the wonder of infinite regress but at least gives formal criteria to evaluate any process seeking to find a more precise value). I think the OP is trying to understand, WHY were the reals extended? Certainly, prior posters have covered the notion that as a more complex formal system (
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Formal_system), the complex numbers essentially through the addition of axioms has practical use in proof. I think that's the crux of what it is being asked... the OP is trying to integrate the progression into his/her ontology which probably has progressed like this:
Where do numbers come from? Counting. (The naturals)
Why does 0 exist? Because sometimes when we take away everything, nothing is left to count. (The wholes)
Why do negatives numbers exist? Because sometimes when we want to take away more than exists, we need to keep track of what we didn't get to take away but still might like to (The integers)
Why do rational numbers exist? Because sometimes we like to divide rectangles up into squares (The rationals)
What number times itself gives us 2? We find we can't find a rational number answer, though it must exist to make arithmetic work. (The irrationals)
Remember that the Pythagorean theorem doesn't allow for imaginaries. (The hypotenuse is the sum of the squares of the legs.) So along comes someone who asks, well if the root of 2 exists, what about the root of -1? BAM! In the 1700's they really started to explore the UTILITY of assuming it does exist (even though it doesn't by the rules of arithmetic) and find that not only can they make it work despite the fact the it doesn't exist, but it can answer all sorts of math questions. I think the OP is trying to get a sense of what those initial uses are. I would suggest reading up on the roots of unity too.
Useful? Yes. Philosophically intriguing? Absolutely. Real? Nope. Intuitive? How can assuming something that you know doesn't exist exists in an even more abstract form possibly be intuitive?
EDIT: I like this phrase in (
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fundamental_theorem_of_algebra):
"Equivalently (by definition), the theorem states that the
field of
complex numbers is
algebraically closed."
This is the essence. New sets of numbers are about creating closure! The FTA closes yet another formal system on the road of maddening complexity!