Why Does Maximum Water Velocity Occur at the Surface?

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Maximum water velocity occurs at the surface due to the absence of shear stress at the air-water interface, while shear stress increases with depth due to viscous friction at the bottom. The velocity profile is parabolic, decreasing from the surface to the bottom, as the stationary fluid at the wall creates a positive velocity gradient. This relationship is derived from Newton's law of viscosity, which indicates that shear stress varies with distance from the wall. Understanding these principles is essential for analyzing fluid flow in various contexts, including laminar flow in pipes.
  • #31
Chestermiller said:
In the Wiki article on viscous laminar flow in a tube, they do an axial force balance on the shell of fluid between radial locations r and r+Δr. An easier way to analyze the problem is to do an axial force balance on the plug of fluid between r = 0 and arbitrary radial location r:
$$\pi r^2\Delta p+2\pi r L\tau_{rz}(r)=0$$where ##\Delta p## is the pressure drop between the inlet and outlet of the the section of pipe under consideration, L is the axial length of the section of pipe, and ##\tau_{rz}(r)## is the shear stress the radial surface of the plug (i.e., at constant r in the z direction). From this equation, we get that:
$$\tau_{rz}=-\frac{\Delta p}{2L}r$$
This tells us that, for steady flow in a pipe, the shear stress varies linearly with radial distance from the axis.

Where do you get this equation actually ?
 
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  • #32
fonseh said:
Where do you get this equation actually ?
It's just a force balance (you remember, like in freshman physics). Please show us what you think the free body diagram looks like.
 
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  • #33
Chestermiller said:
It's just a force balance (you remember, like in freshman physics). Please show us what you think the free body diagram looks like.
i know that A = pi(r^2) , so dA = 2pi(r)dr , so in $$\pi r^2\Delta p+2\pi r L\tau_{rz}(r)=0$$ , why there is L ? shouldn't it $$= 2\pi r \tau_{rz}(r)=0$$ only ?
 
  • #34
fonseh said:
i know that A = pi(r^2) , so dA = 2pi(r)dr , so in $$\pi r^2\Delta p+2\pi r L\tau_{rz}(r)=0$$ , why there is L ? shouldn't it $$= 2\pi r \tau_{rz}(r)=0$$ only ?
There are pressure forces on the two ends that have to be balanced by the viscous frictional (tangential) force.
 
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  • #35
fonseh said:
i know that A = pi(r^2) , so dA = 2pi(r)dr , so in $$\pi r^2\Delta p+2\pi r L\tau_{rz}(r)=0$$ , why there is L ? shouldn't it $$= 2\pi r \tau_{rz}(r)=0$$ only ?
There are pressure forces on the two ends that have to be balanced by the viscous frictional (tangential) force.
 
  • #36
Chestermiller said:
There are pressure forces on the two ends that have to be balanced by the viscous frictional (tangential) force.
Can you explain further how to get 2\pi r L\tau_{rz}(r) ??
 
  • #37
Chestermiller said:
There are pressure forces on the two ends that have to be balanced by the viscous frictional (tangential) force.
why there is L ?
 
  • #38
Poiseulle.PNG
 
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