Why drop the vibrational ground state energy

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the calculation of internal energies of a diatomic molecule, specifically addressing why the ground state vibrational energy, represented as \(\frac{1}{2} \hbar \omega\), is ignored in total internal energy calculations. The internal energy is expressed as \(E_I(n,J) = E_v + E_r\), where \(E_v\) is the vibrational energy and \(E_r\) is the rotational energy. The reasoning for omitting the ground state energy is that it does not affect energy differences, which are the focus of physical observations, similar to how gravitational potential energy is defined relative to a reference point.

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WeiShan Ng
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This is from *Statistical Physics An Introductory Course* by *Daniel J.Amit*
The text is calculating the energy of internal motions of a diatomic molecule.

The internal energies of a diatomic molecule, i.e. the vibrational energy and the rotational energy is given by
$$\begin{aligned}E_I(n,J) &= E_v + E_r \\ &= \epsilon _v n+\epsilon_r J(J+1), \qquad n,J=0,1,2,\dots ,\end{aligned}$$
where $\epsilon_v$ is the spacing between the vibrational levels:
$$\epsilon_v = \hbar \omega= \hbar \sqrt{\frac{K}{\mu}}$$
and $\epsilon_r$ is the difference between the rotational levels:
$$\epsilon_r=\frac{\hbar^2}{2I}$$

But the vibrational energy of the molecule is
$$E_v = (n+1/2)\hbar \omega$$
**Why do we ignore the ##\frac{1}{2} \hbar \omega## in the ##E_v## (ground state vibrational energy) when we calculate the total internal energy of the molecule?** The text refers back to another equation to explain why we dropped the ground state vibrational energy, but I still don't quite understand the reason behind it.
The text referred:
The ground state energy of the electronic system ##\epsilon_0## depends on the distance ##\rho## between the nuclei, and we can denote this as a potential energy ##U(\rho)##.
If ##\epsilon_0## has a sharp minimum at a distance ##\rho_0##, it is possible to approximate ##U(\rho)## by the harmonic approximation. Hence the energy of the molecule will then given by
$$E_{mol}=\frac{\boldsymbol{P}^2}{2M}+\frac{\boldsymbol{\pi}^2}{2 \mu}+\frac{1}{2}K(\rho-\rho_0)^2$$
where
##\bf{P}## is the momentum associated with center of mass
##\boldsymbol{\pi}=\boldsymbol{\pi}_{12}=\boldsymbol{\pi}_1 - \boldsymbol{\pi}_2## in which ##\boldsymbol{\pi}_\alpha## is the relative momentum of the atom ##\alpha##
##U''(\rho_0)=K## is the harmonic approximation of ##U##

In this case I get why they drop the ##\epsilon_0##, that's because ##\epsilon_0## is already included in the potential energy term. However for the first case I don't see where the ##\epsilon_0## goes.
 
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It doesn't matter if you only look at differences between energies. If you take relativity into account you have much more energy via the mass of the particles - but you don't have to care about that.
 
I still don't get it. Why are we calculating the differences between energies instead of the absolute internal energies?
 
The absolute value is meaningless. Changing it doesn't change anything. If you add a fixed amount of energy in a consistent way, no physical observation changes.
 
So you saying what we calculated is not the actual internal energy of the molecule, but rather it is the energy relative to the ##\epsilon_0##? Just like how we define the gravitational potential energy to be zero at infinite distance? We set the zero point ourselves?
 
That’s how I understood what you quoted.
You can keep the constant, it just doesn’t matter.
 
I think I get it now. Thank you for your help!
 
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