Why is energy conserved in a frictionless roller coaster ride?

AI Thread Summary
Energy is conserved in a frictionless roller coaster ride because the only force doing work is gravity, which is a conservative force. While the rails exert a force to change the car's direction, this force is perpendicular to the motion and does not perform work, thus not affecting energy conservation. The discussion clarifies that conservation of mechanical energy applies when external forces do no work, allowing the system's energy to remain constant. In contrast, forces like those from the ground on a bouncing ball do change momentum but do not alter mechanical energy if they do no work. Ultimately, defining the system appropriately, such as including the track, can help clarify the conservation principles at play.
pkc111
Messages
224
Reaction score
26
Could some one please explain to me why energy is conserved in a roller coaster car on a frictionless roller coaster car ride when the conservation law says that energy will only be conserved when their are no outside forces applied. Isnt the force supplied by the rails to change the cars direction an outside force ?

Thanks very much.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
pkc111 said:
Could some one please explain to me why energy is conserved in a roller coaster car on a frictionless roller coaster car ride when the conservation law says that energy will only be conserved when their are no outside forces applied.
The only force doing any work in this situation is gravity, which is a conservative force. (Perhaps you are thinking of conservation of momentum; the momentum of a system is conserved if there is no outside force.)
Isnt the force supplied by the rails to change the cars direction an outside force?
Sure (which is why the momentum of the car changes), but that force is always perpendicular to the car's direction of motion, thus it does no work.
 
Thanks Doc Al that helps.

What about an elastic bouncing ball isn't the ground supplying an external force in the direction of motion ? The definition of the law of conservation of mechanical energy I have is:

"Conservation of mechanical energy applies to a mechanical process in which external force and non-conservative internal forces are absent"
http://cnx.org/content/m15102/latest/

It just implies that all external forces must be absent, not just ones in any particular direction.

Thanks
 
pkc111 said:
What about an elastic bouncing ball isn't the ground supplying an external force in the direction of motion ?
Absolutely, but strictly speaking, that force does no work on the ball. (The ground doesn't move.) During the collision, the kinetic energy of the ball will be transformed into elastic potential energy. If the collision is perfectly elastic, the ball will bounce back with the same kinetic energy.

In any case, the external force of the ground changes the momentum of the ball.
The definition of the law of conservation of mechanical energy I have is:

"Conservation of mechanical energy applies to a mechanical process in which external force and non-conservative internal forces are absent"
http://cnx.org/content/m15102/latest/

It just implies that all external forces must be absent, not just ones in any particular direction.
As long as the external forces do no work, they won't change the mechanical energy.

It also depends on how you define your system. In the roller coaster problem, consider the track as part of the system. So any forces between the car and track are internal forces.
 
Thanks very much Doc Al that makes sense.
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Hello everyone, Consider the problem in which a car is told to travel at 30 km/h for L kilometers and then at 60 km/h for another L kilometers. Next, you are asked to determine the average speed. My question is: although we know that the average speed in this case is the harmonic mean of the two speeds, is it also possible to state that the average speed over this 2L-kilometer stretch can be obtained as a weighted average of the two speeds? Best regards, DaTario
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Back
Top