B Why is Light Speed Invariant & Finite?

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Infinite speed is deemed unimaginable because it implies that an object cannot be located, having moved to infinity. The discussion emphasizes that a finite speed limit suggests a universal constant, ensuring that observers in different reference frames perceive the same speed limit, which is essential for consistent physical laws across the universe. The notion of varying speed limits in different frames would imply divergent physical laws, which is seen as implausible unless intentionally designed. The original poster acknowledges their perspective may lack depth and seeks more informed insights. Ultimately, the question of why light speed is invariant and finite touches on the fundamental nature of physical laws.
alan123hk
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I think infinite speed is unimaginable. If something is moving at infinite speed, we can't find it at all because it has moved to infinity. Furthermore, when the maximum speed is limited, a reasonable inference should be that observers in different reference frames should find the same one speed limit. It would be unimaginable and incomprehensible if observers in different frames of reference could get different speed limits, which would mean different places in the universe have different laws of physics, unless it was deliberately arranged by the creator.

This post is not about why the speed of light is equal to 299 792 458 m/s, there must be a fixed value anyway.

But then again, the above point of view is of course just my ignorant imagination. I hope to get more in-depth and intelligent comment or response from the experts here.
 
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Your question is unanswerable: it amounts to asking "why are the laws of physics what they are?".

Thread closed.
 

Thread 'Is using r as a coordinate in Birkhoff's theorem a limitation?'

In Birkhoff’s theorem, doesn’t assuming we can use r (defined as circumference divided by ## 2 \pi ## for any given sphere) as a coordinate across the spacetime implicitly assume that the spheres must always be getting bigger in some specific direction? Is there a version of the proof that doesn’t have this limitation? I’m thinking about if we made a similar move on 2-dimensional manifolds that ought to exhibit infinite order rotational symmetry. A cylinder would clearly fit, but if we...
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