ismaili
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I don't understand the link from soliton solution of QFT to the homotopy group.
The argument goes like following:
Consider the field configuration such that the action is finite,
therefore we must require the field vanishes at spacetime infinity,
hence, we defined a map from the spacetime manifold to the group manifold of the theory.
I don't understand the last sentence of my previous paragraph.
Let me quote an example from Weinberg's QFT book of volume II.
He considered the Goldstone boson part of action in d-dim Euclidean space(d>2),
S[\pi] = \int d^dx \left[ \frac{1}{2}\sum_{a,b} g_{ab}(\pi) \partial_i \pi_a \partial_i \pi_b + \cdots \right]
To have finite action S, we impose the boundary condition that
\partial_i \pi_a \rightarrow 0 at spacetime infinity.
He then said something I don't understand:
"The Goldstone boson field \pi_a at any point form a homogeneous space, the coset space G/H, for which it is possible to transform anyone field value to any other by a transformation of G, so by a global G transformation it is always possible to arrange that the asymptotic limit \pi_{a\infty} takes any specific value, say 0"
Then, he made a conclusion which I don't understand how he got this:
"The filed \pi_a thus represents a mapping of the whole d-dimensional space, with the sphere r=\infty taken as a single point, into the manifold G/H of all field values."
So, after the emergence of this mapping, one could classify it according to homotopy group.
But I don't understand why such a "finite" action consideration leads to such a mapping between two manifolds, i.e. spacetime manifold(with infinity taken as a point) and group manifold.
Any discussion would be appreciated.
The argument goes like following:
Consider the field configuration such that the action is finite,
therefore we must require the field vanishes at spacetime infinity,
hence, we defined a map from the spacetime manifold to the group manifold of the theory.
I don't understand the last sentence of my previous paragraph.
Let me quote an example from Weinberg's QFT book of volume II.
He considered the Goldstone boson part of action in d-dim Euclidean space(d>2),
S[\pi] = \int d^dx \left[ \frac{1}{2}\sum_{a,b} g_{ab}(\pi) \partial_i \pi_a \partial_i \pi_b + \cdots \right]
To have finite action S, we impose the boundary condition that
\partial_i \pi_a \rightarrow 0 at spacetime infinity.
He then said something I don't understand:
"The Goldstone boson field \pi_a at any point form a homogeneous space, the coset space G/H, for which it is possible to transform anyone field value to any other by a transformation of G, so by a global G transformation it is always possible to arrange that the asymptotic limit \pi_{a\infty} takes any specific value, say 0"
Then, he made a conclusion which I don't understand how he got this:
"The filed \pi_a thus represents a mapping of the whole d-dimensional space, with the sphere r=\infty taken as a single point, into the manifold G/H of all field values."
So, after the emergence of this mapping, one could classify it according to homotopy group.
But I don't understand why such a "finite" action consideration leads to such a mapping between two manifolds, i.e. spacetime manifold(with infinity taken as a point) and group manifold.
Any discussion would be appreciated.