- #1

Frigus

- 337

- 160

the explanation about the question I got from internet is,

A very small change in area divided by the dx will give the function of graph so anti-derivative of function of graph should be equal to the area of the function.

It also seem quite obvious to me but I am not satisfied by it,

It seems to me that even for the tiniest of tiniest dx the derivative of area and function of graph should not be same.

A very small change in area divided by the dx will give the function of graph so anti-derivative of function of graph should be equal to the area of the function.

It also seem quite obvious to me but I am not satisfied by it,

It seems to me that even for the tiniest of tiniest dx the derivative of area and function of graph should not be same.

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