Particle-Rod Collision: Rotation or Translation?

  • Thread starter Thread starter amk_dbz
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Rotate
AI Thread Summary
In a collision where a particle strikes a rod at one end in space, both rotation and translation occur due to the conservation of linear and angular momentum. The outcome depends on factors like the angle of impact and whether the collision is elastic or inelastic. If the particle hits perpendicularly to the rod's length, it will cause the rod to rotate while also translating. The distribution of force during the collision determines how much of the momentum contributes to rotation versus translation. Understanding these principles clarifies the dynamics of the collision scenario.
amk_dbz
Messages
41
Reaction score
0
A particle hits a rod at one of its end in space.
Now will the rod rotate or translate or do both...What part of the force goes into translation/rotation ??
If the above scenario happens in air, what will differ?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
There are several things to consider--whether this is an elastic or inelastic collision and what angle the particle strikes the rod.

Regardless, conservation of linear and angular momentum apply for the system as a whole, so if the particle doesn't come in straight along the length of the rod, the rod's going to rotate after collision.
 
But why would it rotate and not translate??
(assume elastic collision and the velocity of particle is perpendicular to length of rod)
 
It's going to do both. Angular momentum and linear momentum are conserved quantities.
 
Ok, i seem to get it now. Just wasn't sure.
Thank You for your Help. :approve:
 
Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...
I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...
Back
Top