MHB Work of the vector field-Stokes' Theorem

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The discussion focuses on using Stokes' Theorem to calculate the work done by the vector field F = 2y i + 3x j - z^2 k along the circumference of the circle defined by x^2 + y^2 = 9. The curl of the vector field is confirmed to be k, and the normal vector to the plane is also k, leading to the integral for work being equal to the area of the circle. The area is calculated as 9π, with participants discussing alternative methods, such as integrating in polar coordinates, which also leads to the same result. Overall, the calculations and reasoning presented are validated, confirming the work done is indeed 9π.
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Use the Stokes' Theorem to calculate the work of the vector field $\overrightarrow{F}=2y \hat{i}+3x\hat{j}-z^2\hat{k}$ at the circumference of the circle $x^2+y^2=9$ that is traversed in a counter-clockwise direction.

$\text{ Work } =\oint_C{\overrightarrow{F}}d\overrightarrow{R}= \iint_S {\nabla \times \overrightarrow{F} \cdot \hat{n}} d \sigma$

$\nabla \times \overrightarrow{F}=\hat{k}$

To find the vector $\hat{n}$:
Since the circle is on the plane $xy$, a perpendicular vector to the plane is a vector on the z-axis, so $\hat{n}=\hat{k}$. Is this correct??

$d\sigma=dxdy$

So $\text{ Work } = \iint_S{1}d \sigma=\text{ area of the circle with radius } 3=9 \pi ^2$.
Is this right? Is using the formula of the area of the circle the only way to calculate the last integral?
 
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Yes, that is correct. Of course, you don't have use the formula for the area of the circle. You could actually integrate 1 over the disk. Of course, it would be foolish to do that extra work when you know perfectly well that the integral of 1 over a disk is the area of the disk.
 
mathmari said:
So $\text{ Work } = \iint_S{1}d \sigma=\text{ area of the circle with radius } 3=9 \pi ^2$.

Hi! :)

I would make it $9 \pi$ instead. :eek:
Except for that it is all correct!
Is this right? Is using the formula of the area of the circle the only way to calculate the last integral?

Typical alternative is to switch to polar coordinates:
$$\iint_S d\sigma = \int_0^3 \int_0^{2\pi} r d\theta dr = \int_0^3 2\pi r d\theta = \pi r^2 \Big|_0^3 = 9\pi$$
 
HallsofIvy said:
Yes, that is correct. Of course, you don't have use the formula for the area of the circle. You could actually integrate 1 over the disk. Of course, it would be foolish to do that extra work when you know perfectly well that the integral of 1 over a disk is the area of the disk.

Nice! Thanks a lot! :o

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I like Serena said:
Hi! :)

I would make it $9 \pi$ instead. :eek:
Except for that it is all correct!

Oh yes..you're right!
Great! :o
I like Serena said:
Typical alternative is to switch to polar coordinates:
$$\iint_S d\sigma = \int_0^3 \int_0^{2\pi} r d\theta dr = \int_0^3 2\pi r d\theta = \pi r^2 \Big|_0^3 = 9\pi$$

Shouldn't it be:
$\iint_S d\sigma = \int_0^3 \int_0^{2\pi} r d\theta dr = \int_0^3 2\pi r $$dr$ $= \pi r^2 \Big|_0^3 = 9\pi$ ?
 
mathmari said:
Shouldn't it be:
$\iint_S d\sigma = \int_0^3 \int_0^{2\pi} r d\theta dr = \int_0^3 2\pi r $$dr$ $= \pi r^2 \Big|_0^3 = 9\pi$ ?

Oh yeah. You're right! :o