X is a random variable so is |X|?

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SUMMARY

In the discussion, participants explore the proof that the absolute value of a random variable |X| is also a random variable. The definition of a random variable is established as a mapping from the sample space (S, F) to the real numbers (R, B(R)). The key argument presented is that since X is measurable and the absolute value function is continuous, the composition of these measurable functions confirms that |X| is also measurable. This conclusion is supported by the fact that the preimage of measurable sets remains within the sigma-algebra F.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of random variables and their definitions
  • Knowledge of measurable functions and sigma-algebras
  • Familiarity with the concepts of continuity in mathematical functions
  • Basic principles of probability theory
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of measurable functions in probability theory
  • Learn about sigma-algebras and their role in defining random variables
  • Explore the concept of continuity in mathematical analysis
  • Investigate the implications of composition of measurable functions
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Mathematicians, statisticians, and students studying probability theory who seek to deepen their understanding of random variables and their properties.

BoogieE
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Howdy guys. Given that X is a random variable how would you prove |X| to be one too? Thanks for any suggestions!
 
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What is your definition of random variable?
 
Just mapping from (S,F) to (R, B(R))
 
X is measurable, | | is continuous hence measurable. And the composition of measurables is measurable.
 
I am expecting that from the fact that X(-1)(G) = {w in S such that X(w) is in G for all G in B(R) } is in F you can somehow show that |X|(-1)(G') = {w in S such that |X|(w) is in G' for all G' in B(R)} is also if F
 
micromass said:
X is measurable, | | is continuous hence measurable. And the composition of measurables is measurable.
I asked my math professor and she said this is ok. I probably overthought the problem. Thank you very much!
 
If there are an infinite number of natural numbers, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two natural numbers, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and... then that must mean that there are not only infinite infinities, but an infinite number of those infinities. and an infinite number of those...

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