Your favorite mathematical theorems

  • Thread starter Thread starter micromass
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Mathematical
AI Thread Summary
The discussion highlights the beauty and significance of various mathematical theorems, emphasizing their surprising results, elegant proofs, and practical applications in fields like physics and engineering. The Cayley transformation is particularly noted for its utility in parameterizing rigid-body attitude and transforming rotations into cross-product operations. Other theorems mentioned include Noether's Theorem and the Pythagorean Theorem, both appreciated for their foundational roles in mathematics and physics. Participants express admiration for the elegance of Stokes' Theorem and the Remainder Theorem, which are seen as crucial in calculus and analysis. The conversation reflects a deep appreciation for the aesthetic and functional aspects of mathematical theorems.
micromass
Staff Emeritus
Science Advisor
Homework Helper
Insights Author
Messages
22,169
Reaction score
3,327
A theorem in mathematics can be beautiful in a lot of different ways. The result can be surprising or satisfying. Or perhaps the proof is very elegant and beautiful. Or maybe the theorem nice because it can be applied to other mathematics, or physics or engineering, or anything.

So give here the theorems you find especially beautiful and be sure to say why you like it so much. There is no wrong answer!
 
  • Like
Likes 2 people
Mathematics news on Phys.org
I am particularly fond of the Cayley transformation,\begin{align*}C&=(1-Q)(1+Q)^{-1} = (1+Q)^{-1}(1-Q)\\Q&=(1-C)(1+C)^{-1} = (1+C)^{-1}(1-C)\end{align*}where C is an orthogonal matrix and Q is a skew-symmetric matrix.

Why?
  1. The right hand side commutes.
  2. The forward transformation is the same form as the reverse; you just need to swap C and Q.
  3. It is an extremely useful result for passively parameterizing rigid-body attitude.
  4. It can be used to transform rotation into a cross-product operation.

Cayley, Arthur. "Sur quelques propriétés des déterminants gauches." Journal für die reine und angewandte Mathematik 32 (1846): 119-123.
 
  • Like
Likes 1 person
jhae2.718 said:
I am particularly fond of the Cayley transformation,\begin{align*}C&=(1-Q)(1+Q)^{-1} = (1+Q)^{-1}(1-Q)\\Q&=(1-C)(1+C)^{-1} = (1+C)^{-1}(1-C)\end{align*}where C is an orthogonal matrix and Q is a skew-symmetric matrix.

Why?
  1. The right hand side commutes.
  2. The forward transformation is the same form as the reverse; you just need to swap C and Q.
  3. It is an extremely useful result for passively parameterizing rigid-body attitude.
  4. It can be used to transform rotation into a cross-product operation.

Cayley, Arthur. "Sur quelques propriétés des déterminants gauches." Journal für die reine und angewandte Mathematik 32 (1846): 119-123.

And even more interesting: it works in infinite dimensions too. You can use it to prove a very general spectral theorem.
 
I'm a physics buff. I particularly love Noether's Theorem and Liouville's Theorem because they have immense importance in physics, yet they were derived in pure math ignorant of the physical significance.

I also delight in the Schrödinger equation because it ties knowledge to energy. There can be no knowledge without energy expenditure. That is stunning.
 
I have always liked:

1. The Remainder Theorem
2. The Binomial Theorem
3. The Bolzano-Weierstrass Theorem

It seems that so much rests on them. They are like perfect foundations.
 
The squeeze theorem.

For some reason it reminds me of piping bags
http://www.papstar-products.com/papstar_pe/prodpic/100-Piping-bag-2-6-l-55-cm-x-26-5-cm-transparent-12488_b_0.JPG
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Pythagorean theorem. Not only because it has helped me so much with problems I was probably supposed to solve in a more difficult manner, but also because it's the only mathematical theorem I can think of.
 
  • Like
Likes 1 person
leroyjenkens said:
Pythagorean theorem. Not only because it has helped me so much with problems I was probably supposed to solve in a more difficult manner, but also because it's the only mathematical theorem I can think of.

The Pythagorean theorem is indeed one of those theorems which are extremely beautiful. The result is totally unexpected in my opinion: I see no a priori reason or explanation for why the sides of a rectangular triangle should behave in this way. The proofs of the theorem are also quite nice. There are a lot of proofs too (not all of which are that rigorous).

http://www.cut-the-knot.org/pythagoras/
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #10
I don't know if it has a nice name, but it was the first theorem I worked through largely on my own (had done others in class), and the feeling of satisfaction was great.

"The sum of the first n positive integers is \frac{n(n+1)}{2}"
 
  • #11
Tosh5457 said:
Stokes[/PLAIN] theorem and residue theorem. They're so important that they contain much of the information of vector calculus and complex analysis, respectively.

Stokes' Theorem is extremely elegant and very important. It has a lot of consequences such as Green's theorem, the divergence theorem, the fundamental theorem of algebra, Brouwer's fixed point theorem, the invariance of domain theorem, a lot of complex analysis theorems, etc. It's definitely one of the most important theorems out there. Too bad that most books don't give a nice derivation of the theorem.

The residue theorem is also very nice. Complex analysis has a lot of beautiful theorems. For exampel, the Cauchy integral formula is very nice too: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cauchy's_integral_formula

BOAS said:
I don't know if it has a nice name, but it was the first theorem I worked through largely on my own (had done others in class), and the feeling of satisfaction was great.

"The sum of the first n positive integers is \frac{n(n+1)}{2}"

This was the theorem that Gauss discovered when he was about 5 years old:

This is attributed to an early school lesson when the teacher thought he would keep the class busy whilst he popped out for something. He set the test of adding all the whole numbers from 1-100. By the time he reached the door, Gauss had the answer.Gauss imagined the problem as 1 + 2 + 3 +...+98 + 99 + 100, but then he wrote the numbers underneath but in reverse order. 100 +99 + 98...+3 + 2 + 1. So each 100 pairs of vertical numbers added up to 101 so the total was 10100 but this is twice the true answer as each number is included twice. The total is therefore 5050. This lead to the general formula that the sum of consecutive numbers from 1 to n is n(n+ 1) ÷ 2.

Another very nice proof of this result is geometrical: http://www.mathsisfun.com/algebra/triangular-numbers.html

The generalization of this result would be: what is the sum

1^2 + 2^2 + 3^2 + ... + n^2

or in general, what is the sum of 1^k + 2^k + 3^k + ... + n^k

This is not at all obvious. The results for the first few ##k## are:

\begin{eqnarray*}<br /> 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + ... + n &amp; = &amp; \frac{1}{2}n^2 + \frac{1}{2}n\\<br /> 1^2 + 2^2 + 3^2 + 4^2 + 5^2 + ... + n^2 &amp; = &amp; \frac{1}{3}n^3 + \frac{1}{2}n^2 + \frac{1}{6}n\\<br /> 1^3 + 2^3 + 3^3 + 4^3 + 5^3 + ... + n^3 &amp; = &amp; \frac{1}{4}n^4 + \frac{1}{2}n^3 + \frac{1}{4}n^2\\<br /> 1^4 + 2^4 + 3^4 + 4^4 + 5^4 + ... + n^4 &amp; = &amp; \frac{1}{5}n^5 + \frac{1}{2}n^4 + \frac{1}{3}n^3 - \frac{1}{30}n\\<br /> 1^5 + 2^5 + 3^5 + 4^5 + 5^5 + ... + n^5 &amp; = &amp; \frac{1}{6}n^6 + \frac{1}{2}n^5 + \frac{5}{12}n^5 - \frac{1}{12}n^2\\<br /> 1^6 + 2^6 + 3^6 + 4^6 + 5^6 + ... + n^6 &amp; = &amp; \frac{1}{7}n^7 + \frac{1}{2}n^6 + \frac{1}{2}n^5 - \frac{1}{6}n^3 + \frac{1}{42}n\\<br /> 1^7 + 2^7 + 3^7 + 4^7 + 5^7 + ... + n^7 &amp; = &amp; \frac{1}{8}n^8 + \frac{1}{2}n^7 + \frac{7}{12}n^6 - \frac{7}{24}n^4 + \frac{1}{12}n^2\\<br /> 1^8 + 2^8 + 3^8 + 4^8 + 5^8 + ... + n^8 &amp; = &amp; \frac{1}{9}n^9 + \frac{1}{2}n^8 + \frac{2}{3}n^7 - \frac{7}{15}n^5 + \frac{2}{9}n^3 - \frac{1}{30}n\\<br /> 1^9 + 2^9 + 3^9 + 4^9 + 5^9 + ...+ n^9 &amp; = &amp; \frac{1}{10}n^{10} + \frac{1}{2}n^9 + \frac{3}{4}n^8 - \frac{7}{10}n^6 + \frac{1}{2}n^4 - \frac{3}{20}n^2\\<br /> 1^{10} + 2^{10} + 3^{10} + 4^{10}+ 5^{10} + ... + n^{10} &amp; =&amp; \frac{1}{11}n^{11} + \frac{1}{2}n^{10} + \frac{5}{6}n^9 - n^7 + n^5 - \frac{1}{12}n^3 + \frac{5}{66}n<br /> \end{eqnarray*}

The question is to find a pattern for the general case. We can see some parts of the pattern, but finding the general case is not at all easy. If you want a tough challenge, you can try it.

Here is the solution: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Faulhaber's_formula
A very nice derivation of the general formula can be found in the following intriguing document which attempts to generalize calculus to discrete situations: https://www.cs.purdue.edu/homes/dgleich/publications/Gleich 2005 - finite calculus.pdf
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #12
I was going to say Stoke's theorem...but it's been taken. :frown:
 
  • #13
Matterwave said:
I was going to say Stoke's theorem...but it's been taken. :frown:

***Stokes'
 
  • #14
micromass said:
***Stokes'

Stoke's this just flows naturally from my keyboard.
 
  • #15
There are some truly horrendous "theorems" out there that do not even satisfy the usual standards for theorems. Examples include the Noether's theorem, Bloch's theorem and Spin-statistics theorem. I have never seen these being formulated in such form that they could be called mathematical theorems, but still everybody insists that they would be theorems. All the necessary definitions and assumptions are missing, and only the claims are present. If people don't know how to formulate ideas as theorems, then they should be called conjectures.
 
  • #16
jostpuur said:
There are some truly horrendous "theorems" out there that do not even satisfy the usual standards for theorems. Examples include the Noether's theorem, Bloch's theorem and Spin-statistics theorem. I have never seen these being formulated in such form that they could be called mathematical theorems, but still everybody insists that they would be theorems. All the necessary definitions and assumptions are missing, and only the claims are present. If people don't know how to formulate ideas as theorems, then they should be called conjectures.

I never knew Noether's theorem was not a "theorem" in peoples eyes? Can you explain that? She was a mathematician, I had always assumed it was quite straight forward.
Heres a newer English translation :

http://arxiv.org/pdf/physics/0503066
 
  • #17
Hepth said:
I never knew Noether's theorem was not a "theorem" in peoples eyes?

Don't take the bait my friend.
 
  • #18
Hepth said:
I never knew Noether's theorem was not a "theorem" in peoples eyes? Can you explain that? She was a mathematician, I had always assumed it was quite straight forward.
Heres a newer English translation :

http://arxiv.org/pdf/physics/0503066
One can also see Arnold's statement of Noether's Theorem in his classical mechanics text.
 
  • #19
jostpuur said:
There are some truly horrendous "theorems" out there that do not even satisfy the usual standards for theorems. Examples include the Noether's theorem, Bloch's theorem and Spin-statistics theorem. I have never seen these being formulated in such form that they could be called mathematical theorems, but still everybody insists that they would be theorems. All the necessary definitions and assumptions are missing, and only the claims are present. If people don't know how to formulate ideas as theorems, then they should be called conjectures.

Sure, there are some results in physics which are not mathematically rigorous (or are not presented as such). But Noether's theorem is a horrible example of this. See Arnolds book which gives a rigorous version of it.
 
  • #20
Godel's incompleteness theorem.
 
  • #21
Fermat's last theorem. Did Fermat really find a proof? If so it must be much simpler than the proof found by John Wiles.Perhaps there was a proof but a mistake in it. I like to think that Fermat was having a joke.
 
  • #22
I have seen the Noether's theorem in many places, and it hasn't looked like a theorem, but perhaps it is a theorem in some places, and not a theorem in some other places.
 
  • #23
jostpuur said:
I have seen the Noether's theorem in many places, and it hasn't looked like a theorem, but perhaps it is a theorem in some places, and not a theorem in some other places.

You can find a straightforward summary of Noether's theorem on wikipedia.
In fact it follows pretty straightforwardly from first principles in lagrangian mechanics.
 
  • #24
Well I have never seen rigor Lagrangian mechanics either, except in my own notes. The physicists talk about minimizing the Lagrangian, but they have no clue of what kind of function space the domain is, or what metric it would have. Of course the domain space must have some metric, because otherwise the Lagrangian couldn't have local minima. I mean how could a mapping

<br /> L:?\to\mathbb{R}<br />

have a local minima, if nobody knows what the domain is, or what metric it would have?

Furthermore, I have also checked with examples, that it is a myth that the Euler-Lagrange equations would always produce minima of the Lagrangian. It is quite common, that the physical solutions are saddle points of the Lagrangian.

It would be very peculiar, if a rigor Noether's theorem could be defined on the framework of the usual Lagrangian mechanics, while it is blatant to all mathematicians of the world that the Lagrangian mechanics itself is nowhere near rigorous.
 
  • #25
jostpuur said:
Well I have never seen rigor Lagrangian mechanics either, except in my own notes. The physicists talk about minimizing the Lagrangian, but they have no clue of what kind of function space the domain is, or what metric it would have. Of course the domain space must have some metric, because otherwise the Lagrangian couldn't have local minima. I mean how could a mapping

<br /> L:?\to\mathbb{R}<br />

have a local minima, if nobody knows what the domain is, or what metric it would have?

Furthermore, I have also checked with examples, that it is a myth that the Euler-Lagrange equations would always produce minima of the Lagrangian. It is quite common, that the physical solutions are saddle points of the Lagrangian.

It would be very peculiar, if a rigor Noether's theorem could be defined on the framework of the usual Lagrangian mechanics, while it is blatant to all mathematicians of the world that the Lagrangian mechanics itself is nowhere near rigorous.

To me rigor is a bottomless well, as long as the formalism is self consistent and agrees with experiment I'm fine with it.
 
  • #26
jostpuur said:
It would be very peculiar, if a rigor Noether's theorem could be defined on the framework of the usual Lagrangian mechanics, while it is blatant to all mathematicians of the world that the Lagrangian mechanics itself is nowhere near rigorous.
You need to look at better sources, Lagrangian mechanics has a rigorous framework.
 
  • #27
jostpuur said:
while it is blatant to all mathematicians of the world that the Lagrangian mechanics itself is nowhere near rigorous.

Blatant to you maybe. I certainly know that it's rigorous enough, and I don't think I'm alone in this.
 
  • #28
td21 said:
Godel's incompleteness theorem.

I think it's the most amazing theorem in the world. I'm not a mathematician so I'll accept anything that can be made intuitively obvious without proof. As a consequence, I have only read two proofs in my life. Goedel's is one of them (the other was Shannon's).

Tosh5457 said:
Stokes[/PLAIN] theorem and residue theorem. They're so important that they contain much of the information of vector calculus and complex analysis, respectively.

Stokes's is beautiful. I have never seen its proof though, since Maxwell's equations make a form of it physically obvious :)

leroyjenkens said:
Pythagorean theorem. Not only because it has helped me so much with problems I was probably supposed to solve in a more difficult manner, but also because it's the only mathematical theorem I can think of.

The Pythagorean theorem is beautiful too. Again I have never seen the proof. I believed it after cutting out pieces of paper!
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #29
micromass said:
The Pythagorean theorem is indeed one of those theorems which are extremely beautiful. The result is totally unexpected in my opinion: I see no a priori reason or explanation for why the sides of a rectangular triangle should behave in this way. The proofs of the theorem are also quite nice. There are a lot of proofs too (not all of which are that rigorous).

http://www.cut-the-knot.org/pythagoras/

What are some examples of the proofs that you don't consider rigourous?
 
  • #30
anorlunda said:
I'm a physics buff. I particularly love Noether's Theorem and Liouville's Theorem because they have immense importance in physics, yet they were derived in pure math ignorant of the physical significance.

The usual story told to physicists is that Noether did know the physical importance of the work, and that she started looking at the question because Hilbert had become interested in variational principles in physics (including energy conservation in general relativity). http://www.physics.ucla.edu/~cwp/articles/noether.asg/noether.html

By Liouville's theorem, do you mean http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Liouville's_theorem_(Hamiltonian)? It seems to be about Hamiltonian mechanics, so could it really have been discovered without knowing its significance?
 
Last edited:
  • #31
atyy said:
What are some examples of the proofs that you don't consider rigourous?

Maybe I should say what I mean with a rigorous proof. A rigorous proof starts from certain axioms and then proves the theorem using certain inference rules. However, you will never see things proven that way in textbooks. However, the proofs in textbooks always make it clear that it can be done in principle, if you want to.

So take a look at Proof 97, which is a proof without words:
Edgardo.gif

I do not see at all how to reformulate this proof into a rigorous proof starting from the Euclidean axioms. It seems to me that it is very difficult to do so. So I don't consider this a rigorous proof.

However, I would have no problem believing the theorem to be true if I saw the above proof. And I would have no problem presenting this proof in certain classes. It certainly does make the statement believable, so it's not a bad proof.
 
  • Like
Likes 1 person
  • #32
micromass said:
However, I would have no problem believing the theorem to be true if I saw the above proof. And I would have no problem presenting this proof in certain classes. It certainly does make the statement believable, so it's not a bad proof.

For a proof of the Pythagorean theorem, is it permissible not to start from the Euclidean axioms? Could one start from a Riemannian metric which is Euclidean? Or is that cheating - almost proof by definition?
 
  • #33
atyy said:
For a proof of the Pythagorean theorem, is it permissible not to start from the Euclidean axioms? Could one start from a Riemannian metric which is Euclidean? Or is that cheating - almost proof by definition?

I would be inclined to say that they are different theorems. Sure they're both called the Pythagorean theorem since it states the same result. But part of a theorem are also the axioms. So a theorem is a statement "If these axioms are true, then blablabla". As such, the Pythagorean theorem starting from the Euclidean axioms is a very different statement than one starting from a Riemannian metric.

Also (and this has nothing to do with the mathematics but more with the motivation), I don't see how you would motivate a Euclidean metric without the Pythagorean theorem. Sure, you can introduce it, but I see no real reason that it would be particularly interesting. The Euclidean axioms on the other hand are very intuitive statements about the world (which happen to not describe the world we live in due to GR).
 
  • #34
micromass said:
I would be inclined to say that they are different theorems. Sure they're both called the Pythagorean theorem since it states the same result. But part of a theorem are also the axioms. So a theorem is a statement "If these axioms are true, then blablabla". As such, the Pythagorean theorem starting from the Euclidean axioms is a very different statement than one starting from a Riemannian metric.

Ah thanks! I always thought a true mathematician would see it that way. I tend to think it's true because my little patch of the world is a little patch of the GR universe!

micromass said:
Also (and this has nothing to do with the mathematics but more with the motivation), I don't see how you would motivate a Euclidean metric without the Pythagorean theorem. Sure, you can introduce it, but I see no real reason that it would be particularly interesting. The Euclidean axioms on the other hand are very intuitive statements about the world (which happen to not describe the world we live in due to GR).

The funny thing is that even though it is not true in GR, it seems difficult to motivate the Riemannian metric and pseudo-Riemannian metrics without the Pythagorean theorem.
 
  • #35
Maybe the reason Euclidean geometry is a good motivation even for GR is that Euclid was both a physicist and a mathematician? Mathematically, because of the duality between lines and points, for many purposes we can take Euclidean points as a model for physical lines. But Euclid specified a point not as an abstract object, but as something physical "that which has no parts". Similarly, the Euclidean straight line is a model of a rigid body - the straight edge. So he incorporated spacetime and condensed matter into his axioms.
 
  • #36
atyy said:
But Euclid specified a point not as an abstract object, but as something physical "that which has no parts". Similarly, the Euclidean straight line is a model of a rigid body - the straight edge.
How do you figure these aren't abstractions? A thing with no parts has only one property left: location. The point of a point is to make a perfect specification of a location. If that location has any length, width, or height associated with it, it becomes ambiguous. A "part" is a fraction. A thing with no parts is a thing that can't be subdivided into any equal parts. Because, if it could, the location we're trying to specify would become ambiguous. If we could cut a point in half we would no longer be sure in which half we should locate the end of our line or the intersection of two lines, etc. Anyway, there is no physical object that conforms to that. It's an abstraction. And a straight line is a series of points with length only and no width or height. It, too, is abstract. There is no physical entity with length but without width and height.

I thought the "rigid body" of SR was required to have three dimensions and time. The whole point is to see how length and time are altered by great velocity relative to the observer.
 
  • #37
zoobyshoe said:
How do you figure these aren't abstractions? A thing with no parts has only one property left: location. The point of a point is to make a perfect specification of a location. If that location has any length, width, or height associated with it, it becomes ambiguous. A "part" is a fraction. A thing with no parts is a thing that can't be subdivided into any equal parts. Because, if it could, the location we're trying to specify would become ambiguous. If we could cut a point in half we would no longer be sure in which half we should locate the end of our line or the intersection of two lines, etc. Anyway, there is no physical object that conforms to that. It's an abstraction. And a straight line is a series of points with length only and no width or height. It, too, is abstract. There is no physical entity with length but without width and height.

I thought the "rigid body" of SR was required to have three dimensions and time. The whole point is to see how length and time are altered by great velocity relative to the observer.

What you are saying makes sense, but the reason I think they aren't mathematical abstractions is that mathematicians seem not to accept these parts of the axioms any more. If I understand mathematicians correctly, one must always start with fundamental undefined objects and relations in the axioms that mutually define each other. Since Euclid never used "that which has no parts" in future derivations, here he must (according to me) have been doing physics, not maths. Or at least that would explain how even in a structure like GR in which Euclidean geometry is false, the Pythagorean theorem seems to remain a major motivation.

Here is the famous quote from Hilbert: "One must be able to say at all times (instead of points, lines, and planes) tables, chairs, and beer mugs." http://www3.canyons.edu/faculty/matsumotos/MathQuotes.htm
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #38
atyy said:
What you are saying makes sense, but the reason I think they aren't mathematical abstractions is that mathematicians seem not to accept these parts of the axioms any more. If I understand mathematicians correctly, one must always start with fundamental undefined objects and relations in the axioms that mutually define each other. Since Euclid never used "that which has no parts" in future derivations, here he must (according to me) have been doing physics, not maths. Or at least that would explain how even in a structure like GR in which Euclidean geometry is false, the Pythagorean theorem seems to remain a major motivation.

Here is the famous quote from Hilbert: "One must be able to say at all times (instead of points, lines, and planes) tables, chairs, and beer mugs." http://www3.canyons.edu/faculty/matsumotos/MathQuotes.htm
Okay, then:

''Mathematicians are like Frenchmen: whatever you say to them, they translate it into their own language and forthwith it is something entirely different.'' -Goethe
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #39
Jorriss said:
You need to look at better sources, Lagrangian mechanics has a rigorous framework.

micromass said:
Blatant to you maybe. I certainly know that it's rigorous enough, and I don't think I'm alone in this.

I'll show you how I see rigorous Lagrangian mechanics. Let's see what happens.

We fix a dimension N=1,2,3,\ldots. We fix some function L:\mathbb{R}^{1+2N}\to\mathbb{R}, and assume that all its second order partial derivatives exist, and are continuous. We agree on a custom, that the parameter of L is often denoted as (t,x,\dot{x}), where t\in\mathbb{R}, x\in\mathbb{R}^N and \dot{x}\in\mathbb{R}^N. We assume that spacetime points (t_A,x_A) and (t_B,x_B)\in\mathbb{R}^{1+N} are fixed. We define sets \mathcal{X} and \mathcal{X}_0 in the following way:

<br /> \mathcal{X}= \big\{x\in C^2([t_A,t_B],\mathbb{R}^N)\;\big|\; x(t_A)=x_A,\; x(t_B)=x_B\big\}<br />

<br /> \mathcal{X}_0 = \big\{x\in C^2([t_A,t_B],\mathbb{R}^N)\;\big|\; x(t_A)=0,\; x(t_B)=0\big\}<br />

Now \mathcal{X}_0 is a vector space, while in most cases \mathcal{X} will not be, at least not with the ordinary addition and scaling. By using the ordinary Euclidean norm in \mathbb{R}^N we make \mathcal{X} into a metric space by setting

<br /> d(x,y) = \sqrt{\int\limits_{t_A}^{t_B} \|x(t)-y(t)\|^2dt} + \underset{t_A\leq t\leq t_B}{\textrm{max}} \|\dot{x}(t) - \dot{y}(t)\|<br />

for all x,y\in\mathcal{X}. We make \mathcal{X}_0 into a norm space by setting

<br /> \|x\| = \sqrt{\int\limits_{t_A}^{t_B} \|x(t)\|^2dt} + \underset{t_A\leq t\leq t_B}{\textrm{max}} \|\dot{x}(t)\|<br />

for all x\in\mathcal{X}_0. Now these metric and norm spaces are related in an obvious way. For example d(x,x+h)=\|h\| holds for all x\in\mathcal{X} and h\in\mathcal{X}_0. Then we define a mapping S:\mathcal{X}\to\mathbb{R} by setting

<br /> S(x) = \int\limits_{t_A}^{t_B} L\big(t,x(t),\dot{x}(t)\big)dt<br />

Now S is a continuous mapping. (A non-trivial claim! The continuity is considered with respect to the defined metric, of course.) For all x\in\mathcal{X} there exists a continuous linear mapping DS(x):\mathcal{X}_0\to\mathbb{R} and a real coefficient M(x)\in\mathbb{R} such that

<br /> \big|S(x+\eta) - S(x) - DS(x)\eta\big|\leq M(x)\|\eta\|^2<br />

holds for all \eta\in\mathcal{X}_0 with the additional condition \|\eta\|\leq 1. With a fixed x this linear mapping is unique. (This means that the mentioned inequality does not hold with any other linear mapping even if the coefficient M(x) was replaced with a new coefficient too.) If x is a local minimum or a local maximum of S, then DS(x)=0. (A non-trivial claim! The locality is considered with respect to the mentioned metric.) Also the relation

<br /> DS(x)=0\quad\Longleftrightarrow\quad D_t\nabla_{\dot{x}} L\big(t,x(t),\dot{x}(t)\big) = \nabla_x L\big(t,x(t),\dot{x}(t)\big)\quad\quad\forall\; t_A\leq t\leq t_B<br />

holds.

How do you like this theorem? Not very elegant, but I like this. I could mention this as one of my answers to the opening post's question.

I have few questions to those who claim that mainstream Lagrangian mechanics is rigorous. Firstly, have you seen anything like this anywhere ever? I know that this kind of mathematics can be found from some mathematics books, but they are not books on physics. I have never seen a book on physics or mechanics that would give results like this. Have you? Another thing is that do you think that I'm making things too complicated here? Do you think that Lagrangian mechanics can be made rigorous more easily, without these kind of function spaces? I would be interested to hear more.
 
  • #40
http://d2tq98mqfjyz2l.cloudfront.net/image_cache/137408946864354.jpg​

More seriously- the Divergence theorem.
(Stokes' is taken)
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #41
Particularly beautiful? How about de Rham's theorem?
 
  • #42
Stone-Weierstrass theorem(s)
 
  • #43
Enigman said:
More seriously- the Divergence theorem.
(Stokes' is taken)

I think most people included the Divergence theorem when they said Stokes's theorem. I did. I'd be interested to know if that was indeed what people meant (probably you too, but you were joking:)

Here is an interesting blog post which talks about the Stokes's theorem in a way I think about it - the way in Spivak's Calculus on Manifolds: http://owl-sowa.blogspot.com/search/label/Endre Szemerédi: "Let me clarify how I understand the term “conceptual”. A theory is conceptual if most of the difficulties were moved from proofs to definitions (i.e. to concepts), or they are there from the very beginning (which may happen only inside of an already conceptual theory). The definitions may be difficult to digest at the first encounter, but the proofs are straightforward. A very good and elementary example is provided by the modern form of the Stokes theorem. In 19th century we had the fundamental theorem of calculus and 3 theorems, respectively due to Gauss-Ostrogradsky, Green, and Stokes, dealing with more complicated integrals. Now we have only one theorem, usually called Stokes theorem, valid for all dimensions. After all definitions are put in place, its proof is trivial. M. Spivak nicely explains this in the preface to his classics, “Calculus on manifolds”."

The funny thing is at the end he says Euclidean geometry is dead. But as were discussing, although I usually think of geometry as Riemannian geometry just out of naive physics habit, it doesn't seem possible to motivate Riemannian geometry without Euclidean geonetry. So in that sense, how could Euclidean geometry be dead, even though it is true that metric geometry is the form which seems more alive now. What do others think?
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes 1 person
  • #44
The proof that there are more reals than integers, by Cantor diagonalization.
 
  • #45
jostpuur said:
Well I have never seen rigor Lagrangian mechanics either, except in my own notes. The physicists talk about minimizing the Lagrangian, but they have no clue of what kind of function space the domain is, or what metric it would have. Of course the domain space must have some metric, because otherwise the Lagrangian couldn't have local minima. I mean how could a mapping

<br /> L:?\to\mathbb{R}<br />

have a local minima, if nobody knows what the domain is, or what metric it would have?

Hmm. I believe pages 4-5 of Quantum Mechanics for Mathematicians provides the necessary rigor. Walter Thirring's Classical Mathematical Physics also goes through the requisite differential geometry. The formalism is that of finding the stationary point of a functional using generalized derivatives, such as the Gateaux and Frechet derivatives, so a tiny bit of functional analysis is required.

As for myself, I always loved the generalized Stokes Theorem, as many others have already mentioned.
 
Last edited:
  • #46
Although not theorems, an engineer I've always been blown away by Fourier series & transform. So incredibly useful for a wide range of applications. While it seems obvious that you should be able to use different function spaces to simplify problems in this case it just works out so elegantly.

As for real theorems, I'm going to go with Residue theorem or Stokes theorem.
 
  • #47
Demystifier said:
The proof that there are more reals than integers, by Cantor diagonalization.

When I first read the proof the Goedel-Rosser incompleteness theorem, I read a proof with an explicit costruction of an undecidable statement, and it seemed very mysterious. Later, I learned that there was a later proof, by Tarski, based on Cantor's diagonalization.

I'm still trying to understand this method based on diagonalization. Dan Hathway has a write-up here based on Hinman's book: http://danthemanhathaway.com/MathNotes/Incompleteness.pdf.
 
  • #48
atyy said:
When I first read the proof the Goedel-Rosser incompleteness theorem, I read a proof with an explicit costruction of an undecidable statement, and it seemed very mysterious. Later, I learned that there was a later proof, by Tarski, based on Cantor's diagonalization.

I'm still trying to understand this method based on diagonalization. Dan Hathway has a write-up here based on Hinman's book: http://danthemanhathaway.com/MathNotes/Incompleteness.pdf.
I think the original Goedel's proof is also based on Cantor's diagonalization, as is any proof in abstract logic based on self-reference.
 

Similar threads

Back
Top