- #1
Sparky_
- 227
- 5
In attempting to work through some basics of QM –
I have a question regarding a statement or a conclusion regarding “Normalizing the Wave Function”
After “turning the crank” authors show:
[tex]
\frac {d}{dt} \int_ {-\infty}^{\infty}|\psi|^2 dx= \frac{ih}{2m}(\psi*\frac{d\psi}{dx} - \frac{\psi*}{dx}\psi )
[/tex]
I can mathematically get to this –
But I don’t “see” statements that follow this result.
Griffiths states, “But [tex] \psi [/tex] must go to zero as x goes to infinity."
A web search found this statement:
[tex]
\frac {d}{dt} \int_ {-\infty}^{\infty}|\psi|^2 dx= \frac{ih}{2m}(\psi*\frac{d\psi}{dx} - \frac{\psi*}{dx}\psi )
[/tex]
“The above equation is satisfied provided [tex] |\psi|[/tex] goes to zero as [tex] |x| [/tex] goes to zero."
Can you provide clarifying information on these statements / conclusions.
I don’t understand the conclusion being drawn – it’s not intuitive to me where I could make the statement the authors make.
I have a question regarding a statement or a conclusion regarding “Normalizing the Wave Function”
After “turning the crank” authors show:
[tex]
\frac {d}{dt} \int_ {-\infty}^{\infty}|\psi|^2 dx= \frac{ih}{2m}(\psi*\frac{d\psi}{dx} - \frac{\psi*}{dx}\psi )
[/tex]
I can mathematically get to this –
But I don’t “see” statements that follow this result.
Griffiths states, “But [tex] \psi [/tex] must go to zero as x goes to infinity."
A web search found this statement:
[tex]
\frac {d}{dt} \int_ {-\infty}^{\infty}|\psi|^2 dx= \frac{ih}{2m}(\psi*\frac{d\psi}{dx} - \frac{\psi*}{dx}\psi )
[/tex]
“The above equation is satisfied provided [tex] |\psi|[/tex] goes to zero as [tex] |x| [/tex] goes to zero."
Can you provide clarifying information on these statements / conclusions.
I don’t understand the conclusion being drawn – it’s not intuitive to me where I could make the statement the authors make.
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