Calculating Divergence of a Gradient in Cartesian Coordinates

In summary, we showed that the Laplacian of 1/r is equal to 0, by first taking the gradient of 1/r and then taking the divergence of that result.
  • #1
NewtonApple
45
0

Homework Statement


image024.gif

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution


(a)[/B] Divergence of a gradient is a Laplacian.

(b) I suppose to do it in Cartesian coordinates.

Let [itex]\nabla=\hat{i}\frac{\partial}{\partial x}+\hat{j}\frac{\partial}{\partial y}+\hat{k}\frac{\partial}{\partial z}[/itex]

and [itex]\overrightarrow{r}=x\hat{i}+y\hat{j}+z\hat{k}, \mid r\mid=\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}}[/itex],

[itex]\hat{r}=\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}[/itex]

First calculate [itex]\nabla\left(\frac{1}{\overrightarrow{r}}\right)=\nabla\left(\frac{1}{\mid r\mid\hat{r}}\right)=\nabla\left(\frac{1}{\mid r\mid}\hat{r}\right)=\left[\hat{i}\frac{\partial}{\partial x}+\hat{j}\frac{\partial}{\partial y}+\hat{k}\frac{\partial}{\partial z}\right]\left[\frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}}{\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}}}\right][/itex]

[itex] = \hat{i}\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{\frac{-1}{2}}+\hat{j}\frac{\partial}{\partial y}\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{\frac{-1}{2}}+\hat{k}\frac{\partial}{\partial z}\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{\frac{-1}{2}} [/itex]

Am I doing it the right way?

PS. cross posted at
https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/laplacian-of-a-vector.789514/#post-4959007
 
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  • #2
NewtonApple said:

Homework Statement


View attachment 77030

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution


(a)[/B] Divergence of a gradient is a Laplacian.

(b) I suppose to do it in Cartesian coordinates.

Let [itex]\nabla=\hat{i}\frac{\partial}{\partial x}+\hat{j}\frac{\partial}{\partial y}+\hat{k}\frac{\partial}{\partial z}[/itex]

and [itex]\overrightarrow{r}=x\hat{i}+y\hat{j}+z\hat{k}, \mid r\mid=\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}}[/itex],

[itex]\hat{r}=\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}[/itex]

First calculate [itex]\nabla\left(\frac{1}{\overrightarrow{r}}\right)=\nabla\left(\frac{1}{\mid r\mid\hat{r}}\right)=\nabla\left(\frac{1}{\mid r\mid}\hat{r}\right)=\left[\hat{i}\frac{\partial}{\partial x}+\hat{j}\frac{\partial}{\partial y}+\hat{k}\frac{\partial}{\partial z}\right]\left[\frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}}{\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}}}\right][/itex]

[itex] = \hat{i}\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{\frac{-1}{2}}+\hat{j}\frac{\partial}{\partial y}\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{\frac{-1}{2}}+\hat{k}\frac{\partial}{\partial z}\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{\frac{-1}{2}} [/itex]

Am I doing it the right way?

PS. cross posted at
https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/laplacian-of-a-vector.789514/#post-4959007

No. ##\hat{r}## is a vector, so ##\nabla(\hat{r}/r)## does not make sense: you need to take the gradient of a scalar, not of a vector. Anyway, why do you define ##\hat{r}=\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}##? I cannot see its relation to anything in the problem. If by ##\hat{r}## you mean the unit vector in the direction of ##\vec{r}##, then that is most certainly not equal to what you wrote.

Also, never, never write something like ##\frac{1}{|r|\hat{r}}## because that is meaningless: it is a fraction of the form 1/vector, and those things do not exist in any usual form.
 
  • #3
Dear Isaac,

If you yourself write ##\vec r = \hat {\bf r} | {\bf r}|## you really should go back to ##\vec {r}=x\hat{i}+y\hat{j}+z\hat{k}, \mid r\mid=\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}}## and correct the hideous ##\hat{r}=\hat{\imath}+\hat{\jmath}+\hat{k}## to ##\hat{r}={x\over \sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}}} \hat{\imath} + {y\over \sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}}}\hat{\jmath} + {z\over \sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}}}\hat{k}##

[edit] sorry, pressed wrong button.

But, as Ray (And TSny) indicate, you don't need ##\hat r##

In your defence: The original problem formulation is confusing because it uses a boldface r in the 1/r. Many of us are conditioned to see that as a vector.
 
  • #4
BvU said:
Dear Isaac,

If you yourself write ##\vec r = \hat {\bf r} | {\bf r}|## you really should go back to ##\vec {r}=x\hat{i}+y\hat{j}+z\hat{k}, \mid r\mid=\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}}## and correct the hideous ##\hat{r}=\hat{\imath}+\hat{\jmath}+\hat{k}## to ##\hat{r}={x\over \sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}}} \hat{\imath} + {y\over \sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}}}\hat{\jmath} + {z\over \sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}}}\hat{k}##

[edit] sorry, pressed wrong button.

But, as Ray (And TSny) indicate, you don't need ##\hat r##

In your defence: The original problem formulation is confusing because it uses a boldface r in the 1/r. Many of us are conditioned to see that as a vector.

Dear BvU, I think Author referred it as a vector. In the book (Mathematical Methods for Physicists by Tai L. Chow) scalars are mentioned as non bold, such as in same exercise page other problems are

image004.gif

image020.gif
 
  • #5
I count it as a misprint. What could possibly be the interpretation of ##1/\;\vec {\bf r}## ?
 
  • #6
Ok, thanks for the input.

Homework Statement



Show that [itex]\nabla^{2}\left(\frac{1}{r}\right)=0[/itex]

Homework Equations



Let [itex]\nabla=\hat{i}\frac{\partial}{\partial x}+\hat{j}\frac{\partial}{\partial y}+\hat{k}\frac{\partial}{\partial z}[/itex]

and [itex]\overrightarrow{r}=x\hat{i}+y\hat{j}+z\hat{k}, \mid r\mid=\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}}[/itex]

The Attempt at a Solution



[itex]\nabla\left(\frac{1}{r}\right)=\nabla\left(\frac{1}{\mid r\mid}\right)=\left[\hat{i}\frac{\partial}{\partial x}+\hat{j}\frac{\partial}{\partial y}+\hat{k}\frac{\partial}{\partial z}\right]\left[\frac{1}{\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}}}\right][/itex]

[itex]\nabla\left(\frac{1}{r}\right)= \hat{i}\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{1}{2}}+\hat{j}\frac{\partial}{\partial y}\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{1}{2}}+\hat{k}\frac{\partial}{\partial z}\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{1}{2}}[/itex]

[itex]\nabla\left(\frac{1}{r}\right)=-\hat{i}\frac{2x}{2}\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{3}{2}}-\hat{j}\frac{2y}{2}\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{3}{2}}-\hat{k}\frac{2z}{2}\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{3}{2}}[/itex]

[itex]\nabla.\nabla\left(\frac{1}{r}\right)=\left(\hat{i}\frac{\partial}{\partial x}+\hat{j}\frac{\partial}{\partial y}+\hat{k}\frac{\partial}{\partial z}\right).\left(-\hat{i}x\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{3}{2}}-\hat{j}y\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{3}{2}}-\hat{k}z\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{3}{2}}\right)[/itex]

[itex]\nabla^{2}\left(\frac{1}{r}\right)=\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\left(-x\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{3}{2}}\right)+\frac{\partial}{\partial y}\left(-y\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)\right)+\frac{\partial}{\partial z}-\left(z\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{3}{2}}\right)[/itex]

[itex]\nabla^{2}\left(\frac{1}{r}\right)=-x\left(2x\right)\left(-\frac{3}{2}\right)\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{5}{2}}-\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{3}{2}}-y\left(2y\right)\left(-\frac{3}{2}\right)\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{5}{2}}[/itex]
[itex]- \left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{3}{2}}-z\left(2z\right)\left(-\frac{3}{2}\right)\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{5}{2}}-\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{3}{2}}[/itex]

[itex]\nabla^{2}\left(\frac{1}{r}\right)=3x^{2}\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{5}{2}}-\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{3}{2}}+3y^{2}\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{5}{2}}-\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{3}{2}}[/itex]
[itex]+3z^{2}\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{5}{2}}-\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{3}{2}}[/itex]

[itex]\nabla^{2}\left(\frac{1}{r}\right)=3\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{5}{2}}-3\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{3}{2}}[/itex]

[itex]\nabla^{2}\left(\frac{1}{r}\right)=3\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{5}{2}+1}-3\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{3}{2}}[/itex]

[itex]\nabla^{2}\left(\frac{1}{r}\right)=3\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{3}{2}}-3\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{-\frac{3}{2}}[/itex][itex]\nabla^{2}\left(\frac{1}{r}\right)=0[/itex]

Hence Showed
 
Last edited:
  • #7
  • #8
Yes, but we've to it in both - Cartesian and Spherical coordinates.
 
  • #9
NewtonApple said:
Yes, but we've to it in both - Cartesian and Spherical coordinates.

^ solve it
 
  • #10
image024.gif


Solving part (c). As suggested above it's also a misprint. It should be
[itex] \overrightarrow{r}.\left(\nabla.\overrightarrow{r}\right)\neq\left(r\nabla\right)r [/itex]
 

Related to Calculating Divergence of a Gradient in Cartesian Coordinates

What is the concept of "Divergence of a Gradient"?

The divergence of a gradient is a mathematical operation that is used to describe the behavior of a vector field, which is a function that assigns a vector to every point in space. It measures how much a vector field spreads out or converges at a particular point.

How is the "Divergence of a Gradient" calculated?

The divergence of a gradient is calculated using a mathematical formula that involves taking the dot product of the gradient vector and the vector field. This formula is also known as the divergence operator and is denoted by "∇ · F".

What is the physical interpretation of the "Divergence of a Gradient"?

The physical interpretation of the divergence of a gradient is related to the flow of a fluid. It represents the rate at which the fluid is expanding or contracting at a particular point in space.

How is the "Divergence of a Gradient" related to conservative vector fields?

The divergence of a gradient is closely related to conservative vector fields. A vector field is said to be conservative if its divergence is zero everywhere. This means that the vector field is not spreading out or converging, but rather circulating around a closed loop.

What are some real-life applications of the "Divergence of a Gradient"?

The divergence of a gradient has various applications in physics and engineering. It is used to describe the behavior of electromagnetic fields, fluid flow, and heat transfer. It is also used in the study of weather patterns and the movement of particles in a fluid.

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