Do these two partial derivatives equal each other?

In summary: For example, in thermodynamics, U denotes the "internal energy" of a system, but U can also denote the "internal energy" of a different system. U can also denote the "internal energy" of a third system. Each of these systems has its own set of variables and its own U. But we can denote all of them by the same symbol U if we keep in mind that, say, "U_{ABC}" means that it's the U of the system ABC. (This is the reason I wrote f(x,y,z) instead of just f. I wanted to emphasize that there are many different functions that you can denote by f, and that the specification of what variables are held constant is like the subscripts in U
  • #1
thegirl
41
1
take the function f(x,y,z)

s.t dF=(d'f/d'x)dx+(d'f/d'y)dy+(d'f/d'z)dz=0 where "d'" denotes a curly derivative arrow to show partial derivatives
Mod note: Rewrote the equation above using LaTeX.
$$df = (\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} ) dx + (\frac{\partial f}{\partial y} ) dy + (\frac{\partial f}{\partial z} ) dz = 0$$

Is this statement true? (d'f/d'z)x=(d'f/d'z)y (the partial derivative of the function with respect to z at a constant x equal to the partial derivative of the function with respect to z with y as a constant?

Could someone explain this to me? Are those partial derivatives equal to each other?
 
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  • #2
thegirl said:
take the function f(x,y,z)

s.t dF=(d'f/d'x)dx+(d'f/d'y)dy+(d'f/d'z)dz=0 where "d'" denotes a curly derivative arrow to show partial derivatives
Mod note: Rewrote the equation above using LaTeX.
$$df = (\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} ) dx + (\frac{\partial f}{\partial y} ) dy + (\frac{\partial f}{\partial z} ) dz = 0$$
Note that I changed dF as you wrote it to df, assuming you're talking about the function f.
thegirl said:
Is this statement true? (d'f/d'z)x=(d'f/d'z)y (the partial derivative of the function with respect to z at a constant x equal to the partial derivative of the function with respect to z with y as a constant?
Since df = 0, the f(x, y, z) = C, for some constant C.
##\frac{\partial f}{\partial z}## is the partial derivative of f with respect to z. It's redundant to say the partial of f with respect to z, with x held constant or with y held constant. Since you're differentiating with respect to z, x and y are held constant anyway.
thegirl said:
Could someone explain this to me? Are those partial derivatives equal to each other?
 
  • #3
The notation that specifies which variables are held constant is only needed when it wouldn't be clear otherwise what function we're differentiating. For example, suppose that the 4 variables w,x,y,z satisfy the equations ##x+y+z=1## and ##w=2x+y^2-z##. If you write ##\frac{\partial w}{\partial x}##, it's not entirely clear if the function you want to differentiate is the g defined by ##g(x,y)=2x+y^2-(1-y-x)## or the h defined by ##h(x,z)=2x+(1-x-z)^2-z##. If it's the former, you can write ##D_1g(x,y)## or ##\left(\frac{\partial w}{\partial x}\right)_y##. If it's the latter, you can write ##D_1h(x,z)## or ##\left(\frac{\partial w}{\partial x}\right)_z##.

The given equations define at least two functions (h and g) implicitly. The need to write out "what variable is held constant" arises when you chose not to introduce new symbols (like h and g) for those functions, and instead just use the symbol w for one of them.
 
  • #4
You title this "Do these two partial derivatives equal each other" but what you have are three partial derivatives and what you are equating are differentials, not derivatives. Just as in single variable Calculus, we start by defining the "derivative" dy/dx= f'(x) but then define the "differentials" by "dy= f'(x)dx", so we define the "differential" for a function of several variables.

We can do this: Let f(x,y,z) be a function of the three variables x, y, and z, and suppose that each of x, y, and z is a function of some other variable, t. Then f can be thought of as a function of the single variable t and, by the chain rule, [itex]\frac{df}{dt}= \frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\frac{dx}{dt}+ \frac{\partial f}{\partial y}\frac{dy}{dt}+ \frac{\partial f}{\partial z}\frac{dz}{dt}[/itex]. Now we can write that in "differential form" as [itex]df= \frac{\partial f}{\partial x}dx+ \frac{\partial f}{\partial y}dy+ \frac{\partial f}{\partial z}dz[/itex]
 
  • #5
HallsofIvy said:
You title this "Do these two partial derivatives equal each other" but what you have are three partial derivatives and what you are equating are differentials, not derivatives.
I think she was trying to ask if the partial derivative of f "with respect to z, and with x constant" is equal to the partial derivative of f "with respect to z, and with y constant". Of course, there's no need to say that one of the variables are held constant if f can only denote one function. The specification of what variable is held constant is meant to be the last piece of information you need to know what function f is. (See my previous post for some details).

This concept is often used in physics books (especially in thermodynamics), where it's convenient to have the same symbol for several different functions whose values are meant to be interpreted as values of the same physical quantity.
 

1. What are partial derivatives?

Partial derivatives are a type of mathematical derivative that measures the rate of change of a function with respect to one of its variables, while holding all other variables constant.

2. When are two partial derivatives considered to be equal?

Two partial derivatives are considered to be equal if they have the same value at a specific point in the domain of the function.

3. How do you calculate partial derivatives?

To calculate a partial derivative, you take the derivative of the function with respect to the specific variable you are interested in, treating all other variables as constants.

4. Why is it important to know if two partial derivatives are equal?

Knowing if two partial derivatives are equal can help us identify relationships between different variables in a function and understand how changes in one variable affect the function as a whole.

5. Can partial derivatives be equal at every point in a function's domain?

Yes, it is possible for two partial derivatives to be equal at every point in a function's domain. This indicates that the function is symmetric or has other special properties that make the two derivatives equal.

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