- #1
IRobot
- 87
- 0
Hi, I was reading a lecture of qft and I found that two equations:
[tex]
\begin{flalign*}
i \gamma^\mu \partial_\mu\psi_R - m\psi_L=0 \\
i \gamma^\mu \partial_\mu\psi_L - m\psi_R=0
\end{flalign*}
[/tex]
after splitting in two Dirac's equation with Weyl's projectors.
I found that really interesting that the coupling between the two chiralities is made by the mass term and that a massless fermion would have a symmetry U(1)xU(1) with one parameter for each helicity. But I would like to know if it has a much profound signification that the restriction to one symmetry is due to the mass.
[tex]
\begin{flalign*}
i \gamma^\mu \partial_\mu\psi_R - m\psi_L=0 \\
i \gamma^\mu \partial_\mu\psi_L - m\psi_R=0
\end{flalign*}
[/tex]
after splitting in two Dirac's equation with Weyl's projectors.
I found that really interesting that the coupling between the two chiralities is made by the mass term and that a massless fermion would have a symmetry U(1)xU(1) with one parameter for each helicity. But I would like to know if it has a much profound signification that the restriction to one symmetry is due to the mass.