- #1
eoghan
- 207
- 7
Hi there,
I just saw some lectures where they claim that the Klein Gordon equation is the lowest order equation which is Lorentz invariant for a scalar field.
But I could easily come up with a Lorentz invariant equation that is first order, e.g.
$$
(M^\mu\partial_\mu + m^2)\phi=0
$$
where M is a generic matrix.
Now, something should be wrong with this equation, because, as Dirac showed, if we want a first order equation the field needs to be a spinor.
But I don't clearly understand why this first order equation is not Lorentz invariant. I mean, $$M^\mu\partial_\mu$$ is a scalar, so the equation is invariant, isn't it?
Is it maybe because the matrix M changes form by changing reference system, so that we could find privileged systems (e.g. a reference where the matrix is diagonal)?
I just saw some lectures where they claim that the Klein Gordon equation is the lowest order equation which is Lorentz invariant for a scalar field.
But I could easily come up with a Lorentz invariant equation that is first order, e.g.
$$
(M^\mu\partial_\mu + m^2)\phi=0
$$
where M is a generic matrix.
Now, something should be wrong with this equation, because, as Dirac showed, if we want a first order equation the field needs to be a spinor.
But I don't clearly understand why this first order equation is not Lorentz invariant. I mean, $$M^\mu\partial_\mu$$ is a scalar, so the equation is invariant, isn't it?
Is it maybe because the matrix M changes form by changing reference system, so that we could find privileged systems (e.g. a reference where the matrix is diagonal)?