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Consider a theory with the Lagrangian [itex] \mathcal L=\mathcal L_{free} + \mathcal L_{int} [/itex]. I think if we say [itex] \mathcal L_{free} \gg \mathcal L_{int} [/itex], this means that the equations of motion will be much near to the free equations. But I'm not sure that we can prove that if in an equation of motion, we can neglect interaction terms, then [itex] \mathcal L_{free} \gg \mathcal L_{int} [/itex]! I know, It may not seem a clear question but my mind's not clear about it too so I'll appreciate any clarification(of the question and my mind) and any ideas.
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