Function with denominator zero

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To find the limit of (tan 2x)/x as x approaches 0, it is essential to manipulate the expression to avoid division by zero. Utilizing L'Hopital's Rule or the known limit lim x->0 tan(x)/x=1 can simplify the process. A substitution of u=2x can also be helpful, leading to the limit being expressed in terms of sin and cos. The limit can be evaluated using the relationship lim x->0 sin(x)/x=1, along with the behavior of cos as x approaches 0. Proper manipulation of the equation is crucial for arriving at the correct limit.
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Homework Statement



This is a limit problem but what I need to figure out is simpler so I thought I'd post it under pre-calc. The question is:

Find the limit:

lim as x approaches 0 of (tan 2x)/x

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



Since x is in the denominator I know that I must re-write (tan 2x)/x so that the denominator doesn't equal zero. I also know that 0 is a root of both the numerator and denominator, but I don't know how to re-write such an equation. Any help? Thanks!
 
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Use L'Hopital's Rule
 
If you haven't done l'Hopital yet, do you know lim x->0 tan(x)/x=1 or lim x->0 sin(x)/x=1? Then you could just do the variable substitution u=2x.
 
Why can't we obtain the limit here by squeezing?

I'll show you a similar example with tan(x) instead of (tan 2x):

\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{tanx}{x} = \lim_{x \to 0} (\frac{sin x}{x}.\frac{1}{cos x})

(\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{sin x}{x})(\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{1}{cos x}) = (1)(1) =1

In your question you must do some manipulation for the 2 in tan2x.
 
roam said:
Why can't we obtain the limit here by squeezing?

I'll show you a similar example with tan(x) instead of (tan 2x):

\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{tanx}{x} = \lim_{x \to 0} (\frac{sin x}{x}.\frac{1}{cos x})

(\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{sin x}{x})(\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{1}{cos x}) = (1)(1) =1

In your question you must do some manipulation for the 2 in tan2x.
You're not actually doing any "squeezing" here--just using the fact that \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{sin x}{x} = 1
This limit is often proved by the "squeeze-play" theorem, but can be done other ways.
 
I tried to combine those 2 formulas but it didn't work. I tried using another case where there are 2 red balls and 2 blue balls only so when combining the formula I got ##\frac{(4-1)!}{2!2!}=\frac{3}{2}## which does not make sense. Is there any formula to calculate cyclic permutation of identical objects or I have to do it by listing all the possibilities? Thanks
Since ##px^9+q## is the factor, then ##x^9=\frac{-q}{p}## will be one of the roots. Let ##f(x)=27x^{18}+bx^9+70##, then: $$27\left(\frac{-q}{p}\right)^2+b\left(\frac{-q}{p}\right)+70=0$$ $$b=27 \frac{q}{p}+70 \frac{p}{q}$$ $$b=\frac{27q^2+70p^2}{pq}$$ From this expression, it looks like there is no greatest value of ##b## because increasing the value of ##p## and ##q## will also increase the value of ##b##. How to find the greatest value of ##b##? Thanks
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