JDoolin said:
I think this is the relevant question: Is the Lorentz contraction "invisible" as Terrell claims, or has James Terrell made a mistake which has gone unnoticed for decades?
I'll take some time to analyze Terrell's argument, and check whether my own methods (analyzing intersections of world-lines and light-cones) agree with his, (transformations of angles via an aberration equation) and if they don't agree, see if I can figure out why.
(My method)
Consider a ruler lying in the y=1 plane and the z=0 plane. Consider marks on the ruler at points (-2.0, -1.9, -1.8, -1.7, ... 0, 0.1, 0.2, 0.3, 0.4, 0.5, 0.6). (You can imagine the ruler going on forever if you prefer.
Assume your position is x=0,y=0,z=0, and the time is now t=0. (This experiment will take a long time to discuss, but essentially takes zero time to perform.) Assume also that the ruler is aligned with its zero mark at x=0 (with you).
Now, you are observing several "events" on the ruler. Namely, light bounced off or emitted from the ruler sometime in the past, and you are now seeing those events which happened in the past. You can calculate
when those events happened by the formula:
t=-\frac{\sqrt{x^2+y^2}}{c}
Now we consider another observer passing through the same location and time (0,0,0,0) but traveling at a speed of 0.8c. The two of you share past light-cones, so all of the events that you are observing, the other observer is observing at the same instant.
However, to find out where he is seeing these events, we must perform a lorentz transformation on each of them.
\begin{align*} t' &= \gamma t - \beta \gamma x\\ x'&=-\beta \gamma t + \gamma x \\ \end{align*}
When this is done, in particular, the ruler marks (-1.5, -1.4, -1.3, -1.2, -1.1, -1.0) are mapped to new positions:
-0.0963, -0.0394, 0.0202, 0.0827, 0.1488, 0.2190
We are particularly interested in the markers -1.4 and -1.2, which now appear at positions -.0394 and .0827. The uncontracted length of the ruler is (-1.2) - (-1.4) = 0.2, while the apparent length is .0827 - (-.0934)=.1221 The length contraction factor is .1221/.2=.6105
Which is roughly* the same as that which is expected by the lorentz contraction factor \sqrt{1-0.8^2}= 0.6
*If you wanted more fine detail, you should make more marks on the ruler around x=-1.33
Terrell derived an aberration equation from the Lorentz transformations, then uses the aberration equation to conclude that the Lorentz contraction effect "vanishes," but I find it suspicious, when by using the Lorentz transformations
directly, I find that the Lorentz contraction is quite visible.
I am attaching a couple of spreadsheet files (Excel, or openoffice, or import them into google-docs), so you can see how I calculated things. But I think that Terrell's statement that the Lorentz Contraction is "invisible" is definitely wrong. At this point, it's just a matter of figuring out exactly what his mistake was.