Why Do Curved Sunglasses Lack Power Despite Their Design?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Aronyak
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Glass Power Sun
AI Thread Summary
Curved sunglasses lack optical power because their parallel surfaces do not create a significant difference in curvature, which is necessary for lens functionality. While they may slightly distort light, the effect is minimal, similar to looking through a window. Prescription sunglasses are an exception, as they are designed with varying curvature to correct vision. The discussion highlights that only extremely thick and curved glass can distort images, but they do not function like traditional lenses. Overall, the design of standard curved sunglasses does not provide the necessary optical properties to enhance vision.
Aronyak
Messages
2
Reaction score
0
Please someone tell me why sun glasses have no power,though they are curved...
 
Physics news on Phys.org
They do very slightly distort light but because both surfaces are curved and parallel and the material thin the effect is minimal. Like looking through a window.
 
You can get prescription sunglasses, which do have 'power'.
 
A lens works because of a difference in curvature between the sides. A curved sheet of glass with parallel sides is neither concave nor convex and does not act as a lens. This statement only really applies for relatively thin glass that isn't 'very' curved. Extremely thick / curved glass sheets will distort images, although they don't behave like simple lenses either.
 
Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...
I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...
Back
Top