Solved: Showing Dirac Lagrangian Commutes at Spacelike Separated Points

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[SOLVED] Mandl and Shaw 4.3

The question is to show that the charge current density operator s^\mu = - ec \bar{\psi}\gamma^\mu\psi for the Dirac Lagrangian commutes at spacelike separated points. Ie

[s^\mu(x),s^\nu(y)] = 0 for (x-y)^2 < 0.

By microcauality we have \{ \psi(x), \bar{\psi}(y) \} = 0.

The commutator is

e^2c^2( \bar{\psi}(x)\gamma^\mu\psi (x) \bar{\psi}(y)\gamma^\nu\psi(y)-\bar{\psi}(y)\gamma^\nu\psi(y) \bar{\psi}(x)\gamma^\mu\psi (x) )

I tried to evaluate this in index notation. The first term is

\left(\bar{\psi}(x)\gamma^\mu\psi (x) \bar{\psi}(y)\gamma^\nu\psi(y)\right)_{\alpha\beta} = \left(\bar{\psi}(x)\gamma^\mu\psi (x) \right)_{\alpha\epsilon}\left( \bar{\psi}(y)\gamma^\nu\psi(y)\right)_{\epsilon\beta} = \bar{\psi}_\alpha (x) (\gamma^\mu)_{\epsilon\gamma} \psi_\gamma (x) \bar{\psi}_\epsilon (y)(\gamma^\nu)_{\beta\delta}\psi_\delta(y)

=\bar{\psi}_\alpha(x) \psi_\gamma (x) \bar{\psi}_\epsilon(y)\psi_\delta (y)(\gamma^\mu)_{\epsilon\gamma} (\gamma^\nu)_{\beta\delta}.

Minus the second term is

\left(\bar{\psi}(y)\gamma^\nu\psi (y) \bar{\psi}(x)\gamma^\mu\psi(x)\right)_{\alpha\beta}.

If I simply expand this as \left(\bar{\psi}(y)\gamma^\nu\psi (y)\right)_{\alpha\epsilon}\left( \bar{\psi}(x)\gamma^\mu\psi(x)\right)_{\epsilon\beta} I get a different answer to the first term. What I would like to do is to equate this to

\left(\bar{\psi}(y)\gamma^\nu\psi (y)\right)_{\epsilon\beta}\left( \bar{\psi}(x)\gamma^\mu\psi(x)\right)_{\alpha\epsilon} and then use the anti-commutation relations to show this is the same as the first term.

If A and B are Hermitian and so is AB then (AB)_{\alpha\beta} = (AB)^\ast_{\beta\alpha} = a_{\beta\epsilon}^\ast b_{\epsilon\alpha}^\ast = a_{\epsilon\beta}b_{\alpha\epsilon}. But in my case the product of the two matrices is not Hermitian so I can't do that.
 
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Turned out to be something totally stupid. I was interpreting the current as quadruple of matrices when it is in fact a quadruple of complex numbers.
 


Ok,

[j^{\mu}, j^{\nu}] =0

where j^{\mu} =\overline{\psi}(x)\gamma^{\mu}\psi (x)

Is this true?
 
To solve this, I first used the units to work out that a= m* a/m, i.e. t=z/λ. This would allow you to determine the time duration within an interval section by section and then add this to the previous ones to obtain the age of the respective layer. However, this would require a constant thickness per year for each interval. However, since this is most likely not the case, my next consideration was that the age must be the integral of a 1/λ(z) function, which I cannot model.
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