paridiso
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If arctan(x) = tan(x)^-1 and since tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x) is not arctan(x) = cot(x). I know something's not right here but what is it?
Thanks.
Thanks.
rock.freak667 said:No no.
Cot(x)=1/tan(x)
arctan(x)=tan-1(x) \neq1/tan(x)