Spin of the Pion: Neutral Decay Proves Integral Spin

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the decay of neutral pions, represented by the equation \(\pi^{0} \longrightarrow 2\gamma\), which confirms that the pion has integral spin. It is established that the spin of the pion, \(s_\pi\), cannot equal 1 due to the constraints of relativistic invariance and conservation of angular momentum. The argument presented indicates that if \(s_\pi = 1\), the only possible z-component of total photon spin, \(S_z\), would be 0, contradicting the requirement for angular momentum conservation in the decay process.

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maverick280857
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Hi,

I have a question from Perkins:

For neutral pions, the existence of the decay
\pi^{0} \longrightarrow 2\gamma

proves that the pion spin must be integral (since Sy = 1) and that s_\pi \neq 1, from the following argument. It can be proved as a consequence of relativistic invariance that for any massless particle of spin s, there are only two possible spin substates, S_z = \pm s, where z is the direction of motion. Taking the common line of flight of the photons in the pion rest frame as the quantisation axis, the z-component of total photon spin in the above decay can thus have the values Sz = 0 or 2. Suppose s_\pi = 1; then only S_z = 0 is possible, and the two-photon amplitude must behave under rotation like the polynomial P_{l}^{m}(\cos \theta) with m = 0, where \theta is the angle of the photon relative to the z-axis.

I'm not sure I understand the line in boldface. If s_\pi = 1 then why is S_z = 0?

Thanks!
 
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Conservation of angular momentum. two is larger than one!
 
xepma said:
Conservation of angular momentum. two is larger than one!

Yes. Right, but does Sz = 0 explicitly conserve angular momentum? How do I convince myself?
 

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