Identical Fermions in an infinite square well

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the behavior of two identical, noninteracting Fermions in an infinite one-dimensional square well of width 'a'. The initial proposed state, \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\psi_1(x_1)\psi_1(x_2)(\uparrow\downarrow - \downarrow\uparrow)\), is identified as antisymmetric and an eigenstate of the Hamiltonian. However, according to Griffiths' "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics, 2nd Ed," the correct ground state is \(\psi_1(x_1)\psi_2(x_2) - \psi_2(x_1)\psi_1(x_2)\), which has a higher energy than the proposed state. The discussion clarifies that Griffiths' solution may apply to spinless particles, while the equivalence of spin-1/2 particles and Fermions is relevant in relativistic quantum field theory.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics principles, particularly Fermions and their statistics.
  • Familiarity with the concept of antisymmetry in wave functions.
  • Knowledge of quantum states in infinite potential wells.
  • Basic grasp of spin and its implications in quantum mechanics.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study Griffiths' "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics, 2nd Ed" for detailed explanations of quantum states.
  • Research the implications of antisymmetric wave functions in quantum mechanics.
  • Explore the concept of Fermi-Dirac statistics and its applications in quantum systems.
  • Investigate the role of spin in quantum mechanics and its significance in particle statistics.
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Students and researchers in quantum mechanics, particularly those focusing on Fermionic systems, quantum statistics, and the behavior of particles in potential wells.

msumm21
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If you have 2 identical, noninteracting Fermions in an infinite 1 dimensional square well of width a, I was thinking the state would be:
\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\psi_1(x_1)\psi_1(x_2)(\uparrow\downarrow - \downarrow\uparrow )
where \psi_1 is the ground state of the single particle well problem.

However, I just looked in Griffths "Introduction to QM, 2nd Ed" and it says there is no state with the energy of that state and that in fact the ground state is \psi_1(x_1)\psi_2(x_2)-\psi_2(x_1)\psi_1(x_2).

The state I gave seems to be (1) antisymmetric, (2) an eigenstate of the Hamiltonian, and (3) have lower energy than the ground state given by Griffths.

Do you see a problem with ground state I gave?
 
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You've put two fermions on the ground state of the potential, with their spin making up a singlet. I think your GS is fine. Griffith's solution may be referred to spinless particles.
 
In the same line as jrlaguna said, fermions in QM just refers to particles with fermi-dirac statistics. The equivalence of spin1/2 particles and fermions are only in relativistic quantum field theory.
 

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