you know this, right?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

[tex]f(x) = \sum^{\infty}_{k=0} \frac{f^{(k)}(x_0) (x-x_0)^k}{k!}[/tex]

for an analytic function, at x0 = 0, you have to say that 0^0 equals 1 for the constant term. if 0^0 is indeterminate then how can you just say it's 1 in this case?

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# 0^0 in taylor series

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**