Subject: A Baffling Quote from Einstein, badly requiring explanation All sources I've consulted indicate that Einstein reconceived gravity in General Relativity by discarding the prevailing, intuitive, Newtonian view of it as a 'force' accelerating objects, and daringly envisioned it purely as a warper of space-time where accelerated motion is inertial. The key insight galvanizing his grand epiphany emerged from his thought experiment where he considered a man floating in an elevator in the most remote space, far removed from all masses and forces, and a man in an elevator freely falling in the earth's gravitational field. The almost total similarity of the two men's experiences led to the jettisoning of the idea of gravity as a force, since the first man was by definition (and by objective observation) not being acted upon by any forces. And yet in Einstein's own book, “Relativity”, in the appendix where he discusses “Experimental Confirmation of the General Theory of Relativity”, the following appears: He has just described the size of the angle of deflection of a ray of light passing the sun, and then says, “It may be added that, according to the theory, half of this deflection is produced by the Newtonian field of attraction of the sun, and the other half by the geometrical modification ('curvature') of space caused by the sun.” Notice that he DOESN'T say that the result is entirely caused by the curvature of space and that it is twice what would be caused by SUPPOSED Newtonian attraction. The wording, which he had many decades and opportunities to revise before his death (but didn't in any of the subsequent editions), clearly indicates that gravitational attraction (presumably by a 'force') is half of the explanation. How can this be, in light of the unanimous view that GR casts aside all notions of anything but deformation of space? And one further question: Is it true that the deflection is EXACTLY twice the Newtonian prediction? If so, why EXACTLY twice? And does this apply to starlight bent by the sun no matter how far away the starlight is from the sun, or only to starlight essentially grazing the sun as it passes? Obviously, in most situations, GR modifications of Newtonian predictions don't involve a doubling, but only an infinitesimal alteration (as with the GPS satellites data). I presume that if one were doing GPS locating on the sun, the modifications, while greater than on the earth, wouldn't approach a doubling. So why then in the case of passing starlight is it of such large magnitude? I eagerly await enlightenment on all these points.