overzealous
- 15
- 0
Showing unusual maturity for one of my tender years, I'm going to ignore the fact that another commenter attempted to insert me bodily into his Cuisinart set on puree, for no apparent reason. I'll just follow the splendid example of my Granddad, who hailed from Laredo, Texas. In situations like this he'd fix the malefactor with his iciest stare, shake his head in mild disbelief as though puzzled at how God's creations could possibly sink so low, and murmur, “If that's all you got, pardner, then you ain't got nuthin'.” He drawled that last word with a growing softness that asymptotically approached silence, becoming the very thing it was describing. And the object of his scorn seemed to become that too, as you watched.
Now to more important matters-- I want to respond to a comment made by A.T. In my post, I parenthetically noted that the near identity of the results of Newton and GR in everyday gravitational situations was curious and worthy of explanation. Here's his comment:
“What is there to explain? Both models (inverse square law force and curved spacetime) are designed to yield a result that matches the same observations.”
If one theory (Newton's) has as its basis a mechanism totally different from that of the other theory, then it is indeed odd if they make predictions that are identical to double-digit decimal places, and it demands explanation, providing the following is true: Namely, if the remarkable accuracy of Newton is not due to the kind of thing that Ptolemy's geocentric theory did to make its predictions conform to reality--adding epicycles and deferents and all sorts of ad hoc absurdities that together created an utterly senseless, implausible, contrary-to-nature monstrosity. But, of course, Newton's gravitational equation is sleek and elegant, and logical too—the absolute antithesis of Ptolemy's theory, and other failed theories in the past that were arbitrarily twisted and tweaked until they matched observations.
That established, perhaps the explanation is nothing more than that GR is like some equations of SR, which, as velocities approach zero, literally reduce to the familiar Newtonian formulations. However, since I'm not conversant with Einstein's field equations (I'm just an interested amateur) I can't say if that is or isn't the case. But if Einstein's equations don't mathematically reduce to the Newton equation, but still yield nearly identical results in everyday situations, then that's really interesting.
Actually, I just had another thought. Even if Einstein does mathematically reduce exactly to Newton as velocities approach zero, it's still odd. Why would theories employing completely different mechanisms for gravity, with one being right and the other wrong, do that? But maybe it's not really true that they do employ completely different mechanisms, maybe that quote of Einstein's this thread started out with (about Newtonian attraction) indicates just that—since I only know the rudiments of GR, I'm in no position to say. It would be great if someone more knowledgeable than I on this subject (which is just about anyone in this forum) could comment.
Now to more important matters-- I want to respond to a comment made by A.T. In my post, I parenthetically noted that the near identity of the results of Newton and GR in everyday gravitational situations was curious and worthy of explanation. Here's his comment:
“What is there to explain? Both models (inverse square law force and curved spacetime) are designed to yield a result that matches the same observations.”
If one theory (Newton's) has as its basis a mechanism totally different from that of the other theory, then it is indeed odd if they make predictions that are identical to double-digit decimal places, and it demands explanation, providing the following is true: Namely, if the remarkable accuracy of Newton is not due to the kind of thing that Ptolemy's geocentric theory did to make its predictions conform to reality--adding epicycles and deferents and all sorts of ad hoc absurdities that together created an utterly senseless, implausible, contrary-to-nature monstrosity. But, of course, Newton's gravitational equation is sleek and elegant, and logical too—the absolute antithesis of Ptolemy's theory, and other failed theories in the past that were arbitrarily twisted and tweaked until they matched observations.
That established, perhaps the explanation is nothing more than that GR is like some equations of SR, which, as velocities approach zero, literally reduce to the familiar Newtonian formulations. However, since I'm not conversant with Einstein's field equations (I'm just an interested amateur) I can't say if that is or isn't the case. But if Einstein's equations don't mathematically reduce to the Newton equation, but still yield nearly identical results in everyday situations, then that's really interesting.
Actually, I just had another thought. Even if Einstein does mathematically reduce exactly to Newton as velocities approach zero, it's still odd. Why would theories employing completely different mechanisms for gravity, with one being right and the other wrong, do that? But maybe it's not really true that they do employ completely different mechanisms, maybe that quote of Einstein's this thread started out with (about Newtonian attraction) indicates just that—since I only know the rudiments of GR, I'm in no position to say. It would be great if someone more knowledgeable than I on this subject (which is just about anyone in this forum) could comment.