Thanks for your advice. I am really enjoying this problem.
My attempt to this problem is as follows:
Suppose there exist two continuous functions g,h:\overline{A} \rightarrow Y that extend f at \overline{A}. Since g(x)=h(x)=f(x) at x \in A by definition, we shall show that g(x)=h(x) at x \in \overline{A} \setminus A.
Assume g(x) \neq h(x) (for some)[/color] x \in \overline{A} \setminus A. Since Y is a Hausdorff space, we have two disjoint open sets U and V containing g(x) and h(x) at x \in A' (A' denotes a derived set of A), respectively.
Since g and h are continuous functions, we have open sets g^{-1}(U) and h^{-1}(V) containing x at x \in A'.
We claim that O = g^{-1}(U) \cap h^{-1}(V) \cap A is not empty. Since g^{-1}(U) \cap h^{-1}(V) are open sets containing x \in A' and any open set containing x \in A' should intersect at A by definition of a limit point.
Let x' \in O.Then g(x') \neq h(x') since x' belongs to both g^{-1}(U) and h^{-1}(V) by assumption. Since x' also belongs to A, we have g(x') = h(x'), contradiction.
Thus, g(x) = h(x) (for all)[/color] x \in \overline{A} \setminus A, and we conclude that a continuous function g: \overline{A} \rightarrow Y is a unique extension of f at \overline{A}.