- #1

steenis

- 312

- 18

If ##A = B ##, then we know that ##\frac{M}{A} = \frac{M}{B}##.

But is the converse also true:

If ##\frac{M}{A} = \frac{M}{B}##, can we conclude that ##A = B ## ?

I doubt it, but I cannot find the answer. Maybe someone can help me with a proof or a counterexample ?

(If possible, also a reference.)