- #1
jephthah
- 4
- 0
Hello
we have a number of oscilloscopes with 1.5% vertical accuracy (DPO-4032)
we would like to improve (reduce) this number, to improve the quality of our tests.
someone has proposed using a DMM (Fluke 45) to "calibrate" the oscilloscope and impart the DMM's much better accuracy of 0.025% to the scope measurements.
they suggest:
- measure a constant DC value with the DMM, treat the result as "true"
- measure the same DC value with the oscilloscope.
- subtract the one from the other, and apply the difference as a "correction factor" to the scope
it is claimed that this correction will allow future scope measurements (of AC varying signals) to use the DMM's accuracy. thus improving our test quality.
Brilliant, right? So why do i feel like this is wrong? is the basic premise even valid?
Thank you for considering, any and all responses will be greatly appreciated.
we have a number of oscilloscopes with 1.5% vertical accuracy (DPO-4032)
we would like to improve (reduce) this number, to improve the quality of our tests.
someone has proposed using a DMM (Fluke 45) to "calibrate" the oscilloscope and impart the DMM's much better accuracy of 0.025% to the scope measurements.
they suggest:
- measure a constant DC value with the DMM, treat the result as "true"
- measure the same DC value with the oscilloscope.
- subtract the one from the other, and apply the difference as a "correction factor" to the scope
it is claimed that this correction will allow future scope measurements (of AC varying signals) to use the DMM's accuracy. thus improving our test quality.
Brilliant, right? So why do i feel like this is wrong? is the basic premise even valid?
Thank you for considering, any and all responses will be greatly appreciated.