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We know that because \sin{nx} and \cos{nx} are degenerate eigenfunctions of a hermition operator(the SHO equation),and eachof them form a complete set so we for every f(x) ,we have:
<br /> f(x)=\frac{a_0}{2}+\Sigma_1^{\infty} a_n \cos{nx}<br />
and
<br /> f(x)=\Sigma_1^{\infty} b_n \sin{nx}<br />
But here,because for every m,\sin{mx} and \cos{mx} are orthogonal,we also can have:
<br /> f(x)=\frac{a_0}{2}+\Sigma_1^{\infty} a_n \cos{nx} + \Sigma_1^{\infty} b_n \sin{nx}<br />
And its easy to understand that the a_ns and b_ns are the same.
So it seems we reach to a paradox!
What's wrong?
thanks
<br /> f(x)=\frac{a_0}{2}+\Sigma_1^{\infty} a_n \cos{nx}<br />
and
<br /> f(x)=\Sigma_1^{\infty} b_n \sin{nx}<br />
But here,because for every m,\sin{mx} and \cos{mx} are orthogonal,we also can have:
<br /> f(x)=\frac{a_0}{2}+\Sigma_1^{\infty} a_n \cos{nx} + \Sigma_1^{\infty} b_n \sin{nx}<br />
And its easy to understand that the a_ns and b_ns are the same.
So it seems we reach to a paradox!
What's wrong?
thanks