Hi, im a newcomer, and i have a question about an integral shown as follows,(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

[tex]\int d^{3}p_{2} \frac{1}{2E_{2}} d^{3}p_{3} \frac{1}{2E_{3}} \delta^{4}(p-p_{2}-p_{3}) p_{3}^{\alpha} p_{3}^{\beta} p_{2}^{\mu}[/tex]

Is this integral equal to (just considering Lorentz structures)

[tex]A(p^{2})g^{\alpha\beta}p^{\mu}+B(p^{2})g^{\beta\mu}p^{\alpha}+B(p^{2})g^{\mu\alpha}p^{\beta}[/tex]

where the coefficients of the last two terms should be the same because of the symmetry of the integral variables [tex]p_{3}^{\alpha} p_{3}^{\beta} [/tex]

Thank u for ur help!!

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# About an integral

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